AIPGE 2004 Questions
1. Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?
1. Neurosurgery.
2. Day care surgery. .
3. Patients with coronary artery disease,
4. In neonates.
2. Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents shou.ld be preferred for induction of anaesthesia in children ?
1. Enflurane.
2. Isoflurane.
3. Sevoflurane.
4. Desflurane.
3. When a patient develops supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension under general anaesthesia, all of the following treatments may be instituted except:
1. Carotid sinus massage.
2. Adenosine 3-12 mg IV.
3. Direct current cardioversion.
4. VerapamilS mg IV.
4. A patient undergoing caesarean section following prolonged labour under subarachnoid has block developed carpopedal spasm. Lignocain was used as anesthetic agent. The most likely diagnosis
1. Amniotic fluid embolism.
2. Lignocaine toxicity.
3. Hypocalcemia. .
4. Hypokalemia.
5. A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient complained of persistent numbness and paresthesia in the right forearl11 and the hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except:
1. Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves.
2. A tight cast or dressing.
3. Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics.
4. Tourniquet pressure.
6. A five day old, full term male infant was severely cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially and later balloon atrial septostomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likelv diaQnosis of this infant is:
1. TetrologyofFallot.
2. Transposition of great vessels.
3. Truncus Arteriosus.
4. Tricusnid Atresia.
7. The first costochondral joint is a:
1. Fibrous joint.
2. Synovial joint.
3. Syndesmosis.
4. Svncendrosis.
8. Which of the following will be the most important adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal corneal ulcer?
1. Atropine sulphate eye ointment.
2. Dexamethasone eye drops.
3. Pilocarpine eye drops.
4. Lignocaine eye drops.
9. Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are characteristics of:
1. Klinefelter syndrome.
2. Turner syndrome.
3. Cri du chat syndrome.
4. Noonan syndrome.
10. Which of the following is the feature of y chromosome ?
1. Acrocentric.
2. Telocentric.
3. Submetacentric.
4. Metacentric.
11. Shine -Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
I. AUG codon.
2. UAA codon.
3. UAG codon
4. UGA codon
12. Which of the following is a membrane- bound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP from ATP ?
1. Tyrosine kinase. .
2. Polymerase.
3. ATP synthase.
4. Adenlylate cyclase. .,
13. A small Ca2+binding protein that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other proteins in response to changes of Ca2+ concentration, is known as:
1. Cycline.
2. Calmodulin.
3. Collagen.
4. Kinesin.
14. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is known as:
I. DNA polymerase.
2. RNA polymerase.
3. Reverse transcriptase.
4. Phosphokinase.
15. A segment of an eucaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA, is known as:
I. Intron.
2. Exon.
3. Plasmid.
4. TATA box.
16. The articular cartilage is characterized by all of the following features except :
I. It is devoid of perichondrium.
2. It has a rich nerve supply.
3. It is avascular.
4. It lacks the capacity to regenerate.
17. All of the following are catagorised as secondary lymphoid organs except :
I. Lymph nodes.
2. Spleen. .
3. Thymus..,
4. Subepithelial collections of lymphocytes.
18. While exposing the kidney from behind, all of the following nerves are liable to injury except:
1. Lateral cutaneus nerve ofthigh.,
2. Ilioinguinal nerve.
3. Subcostal nerve.
4. Iliohypogastric nerve.
19. Infection / inflammation of all of the following, causes enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes except:
1. Isthmus of uterine tube.
2. Inferior port of anal canal.
3. Big toe.
4. Penile urethra.,
20. An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung due to all of the following features except:
1. Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung.t
2. Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left bronchus.
3. Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the right lung.
4. Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus.
21. Males who are sexually under developed with rudimentary testes and prostate glands, j sparse pubic and facial hair, long arms and legs and large hands & feet are likely to have the chromosome complement of:
1. 46, XYY.
2. 46, XY. .
3. 46, XXY.
4. 46, X.
22. Kinky -hair disease is a disorder where an affected child has peculiar white stubby hair, does not grow, brain degeneration is seen and dies by age of two years. Mrs A is hesitant about having children because her two sisters had sons who had died from kinky hair disease. Her mother’s brother also died of the same condition. Which of the following is the’possible mode of inheritance in her family ?
1. X-Iinked recessive.
2. X-Iinked dominant. ..
3. Autosomal recessive.
4. Autosomal dominant.
23. A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very uncomfortable. His stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhea fi.equently. These – symptoms do not appear when he eats foods other than dairy produ~ts. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme in which this young man is deficient ?
1. a-amylase.
2. beta-galactosidase. .
3. a-glucosidase.
4. Sucrase.
24. A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood?
1. Chylomicrons.
2. VLDL.
3. LDL.
4. HDL.
25. The transmembrane region of a protein is likely to have:
1. A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids.
2. A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids.
3. A disulphide loop.
4. Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic ammo acIds. .
26. A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6- bisphosphatase in liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except:
1. Level of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is higher than normal ~
2. Level of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is lower than normal. ,
3. Less pyruvate is formed.
4. Less A TP is generated.
27. Xeroderma pigmentosum is produced as a result of a defect in:
1. DNA polymerase II. ”
2. DNA polymerase I.
3. DNA exonuclease.
4. DNA ligase. ,
28. RNA polymerase does not require:
I. Template (ds DNA).
2. Activated precursors (ATP, GTP, UTP, CTP).
3. Divaient metal ions (Mn2+, Mg2+).
4. Primer. .
29. Radio isotopes are used in the following -techniques except:
1. Mass spectroscopy.
2. RIA.
3. ELISA. ,
4. Sequencing of nucleic acid.
30. Alpha helix and Beta pleated sheet are examples of:
1. Primary structure.
2. Secondary structure..
3. Tertiary structure.
4. Quaternary structure.
31. In which of the following forms the Anti diuretic hormone (ADH) is circulated in plasma ?
1. Bound to neurophysin-I.
2. Bound to neurophysin-Il.
3. Bound to plasma albumin.
4. Free form.
32. A 45-year old woman visited her physician with complaints of increased appetite and thirst with increased frequency of urination. She also had the symptoms of diminished or c Impalpable pulses in the feet, besides c gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory findings on the oral glucose tolerance test are as, follows: ,
Parameters
Fasting
1 hr
2hr
Blood glucose[mg/dl]
155
270
205
Urine glucose
-ve
+++
++
Ketone bodies
-ve
-ve
-ve
Which of the following statements is not correct for the above mentioned’case:
1. She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes me.llitus. .
2. She was suffering from non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.
3. She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs only when diet control and exercise could not control the pathological situation.
4. Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus is useful in predicting the nature of the diabetes.
33. A middle aged woman, on oral contraceptives tor many years, developed neurological symptoms such as depression. irritability, nervousness and mental confusion. Her hemoglobin level was 8 g/dl. Biochemical investigations revealed that she was excreting highly elevated concentrations of xanthurenic acid in urine. She also showed high levels of triglycerides and
cholesterol in serum.
All the above findings are most probably related to vitamin B6 deficiency caused by prolonged oral contraceptive use except:
1. Increased urinary xanthurenic acid excretion. .
2. Neurological symptoms by decreased -I synthesis of biogenic amines.
3. Decreased hemoglobi11level.
4. Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level.
34. Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of Ca++ from endoplasmic reticulum ?
1. Inositol triphosphate.
2. Parathyroid hormone.
3. 1,25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol. .;
4. Diacyl glycerol. .
35. Which of the following elements is known to influence the body’s ability to handle oxidative stress?
1. Calcium.
2. Iron.
3. Potassium.
4. Selenium. .
36. In which of the following conditions the ~ level of creatinine kinase-l increases ?
I. Myocardial Ischemia..
2. Brain Ischemia.
3. Kidney damage.
4. Electrical cardioversion.
37. Proteins targeted for destruction in eukaryotes are covalently linked to:
I. Clathrin. .
2. Pepsin.
3. Laminin.
4. Ubiquitin. .
38. Which of the following can be a homologous . substitution for valine in hemoglobin?
I. Isoleucine.-
2. Glutamic acid.-.
3. Phenylalanine.
4. Lysine.
39. Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins?
I. Proteases.
2. Proteosomes.
3. Templates.
4. Chaperone~
40. C)rtochrome C of the bacteria has 50% identity of amino acid sequence with that of human. Which of the following is the most conserved parameter in these two proteins?
I. Quaternary structure.-.
2. Tertiary structure.
3. Amino acid sequence..-
4. Loop and turn segments.
41. A highly.ionized drug:
1. Is excreted mainly by the kidneys..
2. Crosses the placental barrier easily.
3. Is well absorbed from the intestine.
4. Is highly protein bound.
42. The following statements are true about DPT vaccine except:
I. Aluminium salt has an adjuvant effect.
2. Whole killed bacteria of Bordetella pertussis has an adjuvant eff~ct. ./ 3. Presence of acellular pertussis component increases its immunogenicity. .
4. Presence of H. influenza type B component increases its immunogenicity.
43. The National Population Policy of India has set the following goals except:
I. To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2015.
2. To reduce the infant Mortality Rate to 30 per 1000 live births.
3. To reduce the Maternal Mortality Rate ; to 100 per 100,000 live births-
4. 100 percent registration of births deaths, marriages and pregnancies.
44. The following statements are true about Intra uterine devices (IUD) except:
I. Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD.
2. The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu- T 200 are similar. ”
3. IUD can be used for Emergency Contraception within 5 days.
4. Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years.
45. All of the following are used as proxy measures for incubation period except:
1. Latent period.
2. Period of communicability.
3. Serial interval.
4. Generation time.
46. “Five clean practices” under strategies for elimination of neonatal tetanus include all except:
1. Clean surface for delivery.
2. Clean hand of the attendant.
3. New blade for cutting the cord.
4. Clean airway.
47. The current recommendation for breast- feeding is that:
1. Exclusive. breast-feeding should be continued till 6 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods.
2. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 4 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods. .
3. Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born baby but it is best avoided in first 2 days.
4. The baby should be allowed to breast- feed till one year of age.
48. According to International Health Regulations, there is no risk of spread of yellow Fever if the Aedes aegypti index remains below:
1. 1%.
2. 5%.
3. 8%.
4. l0%.
49. The following statements about breast milk are true except:
I. The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months. .
2. The coefficient of uptake of iron in breast milk is 70%.
3. Calcium absorption of human milk is better than that of cow’s milk.
4. It provides about 65 K cals per I 00 ml.
50. All of the following statements about leprosy are true except:
I. MultibacilIary leprosy is diagnosed when there are more than 5 skin patches.
2. New case detection rate is an indicator for incidence of leprosy.
3. A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment tor 6 months or more.
4. The target for elimination of leprosy is to reduce the prevalence to less than I per 10,000 population.
51. Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was 5 introduced following the recommendation of;
1. Srivastava Committee..
2. Bhore Committee.
3. Kartar Singh Committee.
4. Mudaliar Committee.
52. The usefulness of a ’screening test’ in a community depends on its:
I. Sensitivity. .
2. Specificity.
3. Reliability.
4. redictive value. .
53. It the grading of diabetes is classified as “mild,’ ‘.moderate” and .’severe” the scale of measurement used is;
1. Interval.
2. Nominal. . .;
3. Ordinal. ..
4. Ratio.
54. If preval~ce of diabetes is 10%, the ~ty that three people selected at random from the population will have diabetes is:
I. 0.01.
2. 0.03.
3.0.001..
4. 0.003.
55. A study began in 1970 with a group of 5000 adults in Delhi who were asked about their alcohol consumption. The occurrence
of cancer was studied in this group between 1990-1995. This is an example of:
1. Cross-sectional study.
2. Retrospective cohort study.
3. Concurrent cohort study.
4. Case-control study.
56. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community is:
1. Mass Miniature Radiography. .
2. Sputum examination..
3. Tuberculin Test.
4. Clinical examination.
57. A 37 weeks pregnant woman attends an antenatal clinic at a Primary Health Centre . She has not had any antenatal care till now. The best approach regarding tetanus immunization in this case would be to:
1. Give a dose of Tetanus Toxoid (TT) and explain [0 her that it will not protect the new born and she should take the second dose after four weeks even if she deiivers in [he meantime.t
2. Do not waste the TT vaccine as it would anyhow be of no use in this pregnan~y.
3. Given one dose ofTT and explain that it \V'ill not be useful for this pregnancy.
4. Give her anti-[etanus Immunoglobulin along with the TT vaccine.
58. Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseases include all of the follo\V'ing except: ,
1. A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption. .
2. Reduction in fat intake to 20-30 per cent of caloric intake.
3. Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10% of total energy intake.
4. Reduction of cholesteTol to below 100mg per 1000 kcal per day.
59. Essential components of RCH Programme in India include all of the following except:
1. Prevention and management of unwanted pregnancies.
2. Maternal care including antenatal, delivery & post-natal services.
3. Reduce [he under five mortality to half.
4. Management of reproductive tract infections & sexually transmitted infections.
60. A child aged 4 months was brought to a health worker in the sub center with complaints of cough and fever. On examination, there was chest indrawing and respiratory rate was 45 per minute. Which of the following is best way to manage the child?
1. The child should be classified as a case of pneumonia.
2. Give an antibiotic and advise mother to give home care.
3. Reassess the child within 2 days or earlier if the condition worsens.
4. Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose ofan antibiotic. .
61. A 3 Y2 year old child has not received primary immunization. Which of the . following is the best vaccination advice to such a child ?
1. BCG, DPT h OPV h and DPT 2, OPV 2 after 4 weeks. .
2. BCG, DT h OPV h measles, vitamin A.
3. BCO, DPT1, OPVh measles, vitamin A.
4. DT h DT 2 and booster after I year.
62. The table below shows the screening test results of disease Z in relation to the true disease status of the population being tested:
Screening Disease Z Total Test
Results Yes No
Positive 400 200 600
Negative 100 600 700 Total 500 800 1300
} The specificity of the screening test is :
J 1. 70%. \ 2. 75%. 3. 79%. 4. 86%.
63. If each value of a given group of observations is multiplied by 10, the standard deviation of the resulting observations is:
1. Original std. Deviation x 10..
2. Originalstd. Deviation/lO.
3. Original std. Deviation -10.
4. Original std. Deviation it self.
64. Arlt's line is seen in:
tSi' ernal keratoconjunctivitis.
2. rygium.
3. Oc lar pemphigoid.
4. Trachoma",
65. If the systolic blood pressure in a population has a mean of 130 mmHg and a median of 140 mm Hg, the distribution is said to be:
1. Symmetrical.
2. Positively skewed.
3. Negatively skewed. I
4. Either positively or negatively skewed, depending on the Standard deviation.
66. A 30 year old male had severely itchy papulo-vesicular lesions on extremities, knees, elbows and buttocks for one year . Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesions showed IgA deposition at dermo- epidermal junction. The most probable
diagnosis is:
1. Pemphigus vulgaris.
2. Bullous pemphigoid./
3. Dermatitis herpetiformis.
4. Nummular eczema.
67. A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperpigmented macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen, he developed urticarial wheal, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Fixed drug erllption.
2. Lichen planus.
3. Urticaria pigmentosa~
4.. Urticarial vasculitis.. !
68. A 25-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of flexural eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhoea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from:
1. Seborrheic dermatitis.
2. Atopic dermatitis.""'
3. Airborne contact dermatitis.
4. Nummular dermatitis.
69. All of the following are the mode of transmission of leprosy except :
1. Breast milk.
2. Insect bite.""
3. Transplacental spread.
4. Droplet infection.
70. Contre-coup injuries are seen in:
I. Brain.+
2. Heart.
3. Liver. .
4. Pancreas.
71. A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding oUt base deficit /access for blood in given patient. An experienced senior resident gave him advise to find out quick method to determine acid-base composition of blood based on PCO2. Which of the following method he suggested to predict acid-base composition of blood'?
I. Red ford nomogram.
2. DuBio's nomogram.
3. Goldman constant field equation.
4. Siggaard-Andersen nomogram.'./
72. Hydrogen peroxide is used in all the following chemical tests for blood excep~:
I. Benzedine test.
2. Phenophthalein test.
3. Orthotoluidine test.
4. Teichmann's test.
73. Disputed maternity can be solved by using the following tests except:
I. Blood grouping.
2. m..A typing.
3. Preciptin test"
4. DNA fingerprinting.
74. In which of the following conditions post- mortem caloricity may be seen in death due to:
I. Massi ve haemorrhage.
2. Cyanide poisoning.
3. Corrosive poisoning.
4. Septicemia. ./
75. Deep blue colour of hypostasis is seen in death due to poisoning by:
I. Potassium cyanide.
2. Phophorus.
3. Aniline dyes.
4. Carbon monoxide.
76. A 25 year old person sustained injury in right eye. He developed right corneal opacity following the injury. Left eye was already having poor vision. Corneoplasty of right eye was done and vision was restored. Medicolegally such injury is labelled as:
I. Grievous. t'
2. Simple./
3. Dangerous.
4. Serious.
77. A person was brought by police from the railway platform. He is talking irrelevant. He is having dry mouth with hot skin, dilated pupils, staggering gait and slurred speech. The most possible diagnosis is:
I. Alcohol intoxication.
2. Carbamates poisoning.
3. Organophosphorous poisoning.-
4. Datura poisoning./
78. A convict whose family or relations were not known and no biological sample was available with jail authorities, escaped trom the jail. A'dead body resembling the convict was found in nearby forest, but due to mutilation of face, identity could not be established. The positive identity that he is .the same convict who escaped from jail can be established by:
1. Blood Grouping.
2. DNA Profile.
3. Anthropometry...
4. ll.A typing.
79. Which of the fol1owin!! is the most reliable method of estimating blood alcohol level ?
1. Cavett's test.
2. Breath alcohol analyzer.
3. Gas liquid chromatography.
4. Thin layer chromatography.
80. The cephalic index of Indian population is between:
I. 70-75.
2. 75-80.
3. 80-85.01
4. 85-90.
81. A 20-year-old woman presents with bilateralconductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin-walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigation~ reveal total leukocyte count I2()()()/mm , red cell casts in the urine and I2,()()()/mm3 serum creatinine 3 mg/dL. What is the most probable diagnosis?
I. Henoch -Schonlein purpura.
2. Polyarteritis nodosa.
3. Wegener's granulomatosis.
4. Disseminated tuberculosis.
82. A woman is admitted with complaints of low-grade fever of 6 weeks duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields. All of the fol1owing investigations will be useful in differential
diagnosis except:
1. CD4/CD8 counts in the blood.
2. Serum ACE levels.
3. CECT of chest.
4. Gallium scan.
83. A 15-year-old boy with epilepsy on 88. treatment with combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of seizures. Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range. All of the following adverse effects can be attributed to valproate except:
1. Weight gain of 5 kg.
2. Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/L.
3. Rise in serum ammonia level by 20 ~g/dL.
4. Lymphadenopathy.
84. A known sputum positive pulmonary 89 tuberculosis patient currently on INH, . rifampicin, p}Tizinamide and ethambutol is found to be HIV positive. His CD4 count was 100/~ and viral load was more th-an 50,000 copies/mI. Which of the following antiretroviral drugs should be avoided:
I. Indinavir.
2. amlvu in.
3. Ritonavir.
4. Efavirenz. .
85. An 18-yr-old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm of Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and anti neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is: 91.
1. Wegener's granulomatosis.
2. Polyarteritis nodosa.
3. Takayasu's arteritisv
4. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
86. A 21 year old woman presents with complaints of primary amenolThoea. Her height is 153 cm, weight is 51 kg. She has well developed breasts. She has no pubic or axillary hair and no hirsuitism. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis ? 92.
1. Turner syndrome~
2. Stein-Leventhal syndrome~
3. Premature ovarian failure)
4. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome.
87. A 28-year old lady has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 3 years ), and has oligomenorrhoea followed by amenorrohoea for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 93. mm ofHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation ?
1. Serum electrolytes.
2. Plasma cortisol. .
3. Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of pelvis.
4. T3, T4 and TSH.
88. A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dl and ESR 18 mm I sI hour, Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dl, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase 28 KA units and Blood urea 32 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?
1. Nutritional rickets.
2. Renal rickets. "
3. Hyperparathyroidism
4. Skeletal dysplasia.
89. All of the following are associated with low ~ complement levels except: ! 1
I. Lupus nephritis.
2. Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis.
3. Diarrhea-associatedhemolytic uremic !syndrome.
4. Post-intections glomerulonephritis.
90. All are true regarding idiopathil: edema of women except:
1. It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention.
2. It is not related to menstrual cycles.J
3. There is increased water retention in upright position.
4. ACE inhibitors can be useful in some ;
91. Estimation of the follo"wing hormones is 1 useful while investigating a case of j gynaecomastia except: !
1 I. Testosterone.
2. Prolactin.
3. Estradiol.
4. Luteinizing hormone.
92. The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as: :
I. Jod -Basedow effect..
2. Wolff-Chaikoff effect. ..
3. Thyrotoxicosis factitia.
4. de Quervain's thyroiditis. 1
93. In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is I characterized by the presence of all the Ifollowing except:
I. Red cell casts.
2. Acanthocytes.
3. Crenated red cells.
4. Dysmorphic red cells.
94. Which one of the following is true regarding i HIV infection:
I. Following needle stick injury infectivity f is reduced by administration of ~ nucleoside analogues.
2. C?4 counts are the best predictors of , disease progression.
3. Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patients.
4. In latent phase HIV is minimal replication.
95. All of the following are true about amiodarone induced thyroid dysfunction except:
I. Hyperthyroidism is common in iodine deficient areas. v
2. Hypothyroidism is more common in men.
3. Amiodarone inhibits deiodinase activity.
4. Amiodarone therapy is associated with initial reduction of serum T 4 levels.
96. All of the following are seen in cardiac temponade except:
I. Pulsus paradoxus.
2. Diastolic coilapse of right ventricle on - echocardiogram.
3. Electrical altemans.
4. Kussmaul.s sign.,
97. All of the following may be used in pregnancy associated hypertension except:
1"" L.. aptopn .
3. Methyldopa.
4. Hydralazine.
98. A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral steno~is with atrial fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he developed a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being administered was:
1. Verapamil.
2. Digoxin.
3. Grvedilol.
4. Propranolol.
99. The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorders is:
.T:.
2~ .01.
3. TSH.J
4. Thyroglobulin.
100. Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferrin saturation are most consistent with the diagnosis of:
1. Iron deficiency anemia.
2. Anemia of chronic disease.
3. Hemochromatosis..;
4. Lead poisoning.
101. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) differs from thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. In this reference the DIC'is most likely characterized by:
1. Significant numbers of schistocytes.
2. A brisk reticulocytosis..
3. Decreased coagulation factor levels.,
4. Significant thrombocytopenia.
102. A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusional state, focal seizures and a right hemiparesis. The MRI performed shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Acute pyogenic meningitis.
2. Herpes simplex encephalitis.
3. Neurocysticercosis.
4. Carcinomatous meningitis..t
103. A middle aged man presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet. Examination reveals presence of Mees. lines in the nails :md rain drop pigmentation in the hands. The most likely causative toxin for the above mentioned symptoms is:
1. Lead.
2. A1.senic/
3. Thallium.
4. Mercury.
104. A 10 month old child presents with two weeks. history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium. Cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus. The most likely etiological agent is:
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
2. Cryp.tococcus neofonnans.
3. Listeria monoc.yto,genes.
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
105. All are the features of absence seizures except:
1. Usually seen in childhood.
2. 3-Hz spike wave in EEG.
3. Postictal confusion. J
4. Precipitation by hyperventilation.
106. All of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except:
1. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy.
2. Acute intermittent porphyria../
3. Lead intoxication.
4. Arsenic intoxication.
107. The first investigation of choice in a patient I with suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage r~; should be: ,
1. Non-contrast computed tomography~
2. CSF examination.
3. Magnetic resonance imaging(MRI).
4. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography.
108. A 5 year old girl came with history of progressively increasing pallor since birth and ~ hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most relevant test for achieving diagnosis:
1. Hb electrophoresis. .
2. Peripheral smear examination.
3. Osmotic fragility test.
4. Bone marrow examination
109. A 5 year old child presents with history of i'Ji fever off-and-on for past 2 weeks and -C" petechial spots allover the body and f~ increasing pallor for past I month. Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin. The most likely ,,:j: diagnosis is:
1. Acute leukemia.
2. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
3. Hypersplenism. .
4. Aplastic anemia.
110. A nine month old boy of Sindhi parents presented to you with complaints of progressive lethargy, irritability & pallor since 6 months of age. Examination revealed severe Pallor. Investigations showed Hb -3.8 gm %; MCV-:- 58 fl; MCH -19.4 pg/ cell. Blood film shows osmatic fragility is normal (target cells and normoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of erythroid marrow. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Iron deficiency anemia.
2. Acute lymphoblastic anFmia.
3. Hemoglobin D disease
4. Hereditary spherocytosis:
III. A 20 year-old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E. coli is likely to be the causative agent:
1. O 157:H7{ 2. O 159:H7. 3. O 107:H7. 4. O 55:H7.
112. Haemophilus injluenzae has been isolated from the CSF of a two-year old boy suffering from meningitis. The strain is beta-Iactamase producing and resistant to chloramphenicol. The most appropriate antimicrobial choice in such a situation is:
1. Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole combination"
2. Ciprofloxacin.
3. Third-generation cephalosporin.
4. Vancomycin.
113. A 30 year-old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows Gram-positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic. occurring in short chains. Direct wet mount -- from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is:
I. Listeria lIlonocytogenes..J
2. Corynebacterium sp.
3. Enterococcus sp.
4. EI)'sipelothri.\ rhusiopathiae.
114. The most common agent associated with .neonatal bacterial meningitis is:
I. Haelllophilus injluenzae type b.
2. Neisseria lIleningitidis.
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
4. Streptococcus agalactiae.
115. In all of the following bacterial diarrhoeas toxins are implicated as a major pathogenetic mechanism except:
1. Vibrio cholerae.
2. Shigella sp.
3. Vibrio parahaelllolyticus.
4. Staphylococcus aureus.
116. A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is:
1. Hepatitis B virus.
2. Hepatitis C virus.
3. Hepatitis E virus./
4. Hepatitis A virus.
117. An HIV positive patient complains of visual disturbances. Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular heamorrahges. Which of the following viruses are most likely to be responsible for this retinitis:
I. Herpes simple_, virus.
2. Human herpes virus 8.
3. Cytomegalovirus. ,/
4. Epstein-Barr(EB) vints.
118. All of the following clinical features are associated with Enteroviruses except:
I. Myocarditis. 2. Pleurodynia. . 3. Herpangina. 4. Hemorrhagic fever. ../
119. Which of the following statements is true regarding ARBO viruses?
I. Yellow fever is endemic in India.
2. Dengue virus has only one serotype;
3. Kyasanur Forest dise'Jse (KFD) is transmitted by ticW
4. Mosquito of culex vishnoi-complex is the vector of Dengue fever .
120. Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract infections can be established by all of the following tests except:
1. Detection of virus specific IgM antibodies in single serum specimen.
2. Demonstration of viral antigens by indirect immunofluorescence assay in nasopharyngeal washings.
3. Isolation of viruses using centrifugation enhanced culture.1
4. Detection of viral heamagglutination inhibiting (HAl) andibodies in a single serum specimen.
121. All of the following statements are true regarding potiovirus except:
I. It is transmitted by feco-oral route.
2. Asymptomatic infections are common in children.
3. There is a single serotype causing infectiorfl:'
4. Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity.
122 An infant develops cough and fever. The X- ray examination is suggestive of bronchopneumonia. All of the following viruses can be the causative agent except:
1. Parainfl[tenza viruses.
2. Influenza virus A.
3. Respiratory syncytial virus.
4. Mumps virus.
123. Which of the following viruses is common cause of viral encephalitis ?
1. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
2. Japanese encephalitis virus.
3. Nipah virns.
4. Cytomegalovirus
24. A 25 year old woman had premature rupture of membranes and delivered a male child who became lethargic and apneic on the Ist day of birth and went into shock. The mother had a previous history of abortion I year back. On culture, her vaginal swab growth of r3- haemolytic colonies on blood agar was found. On staining these were found to be gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent ?
1. Streptococcus pyogenes.
2. Streptococcus agalactiae. .;
3. Peptostreptococci.
4. Enterococcus faecium.
25. A post-operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by anew resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which one of the following is the most likely' combination that was given?
1. Vancomycin and Amikacin.
2. Cephelexin and Gentamicin.
3. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol.
4. Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin.
126. A farmer presenting with fever'Off-and-on for the past 4 years was diagnosed to be suffering from chronic brucellosis. All of the following serological tests would be helpful in the diagnosis at this stage except:
1. Standard Agglutination test.
2. 2 Mercapto-ethanol test.
3. Complement fixation test.
4. Coomb's test..I
127. A man, after. skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule on his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is:
1. Clostridilt/1l tetani.
2. Listeria monocytogenes.
3. Bacillus anthracis. .;
4. Actinomyces sp.
128. Which of the following toxins acts by inhibiting protein synthesis:
1. Cholera toxin.
2. Shiga toxin.
3. Pertussis toxin}
4. LT ofenterotoxigenic E.coli.
129. A 20 years old ma.le patient presents to the STD clinic with a genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear from ulcer shows ~m vegative coccobacilli. The most appropriate media for cuiture wouid be:
1. Thayer-Martin Medium."'
J 2. Blood agar with X & V factors.
3. Chocolate agar with isovitale X.
4. Tellurite blood agar .
130. A microbiologist wants to develop a vaccine for prevention of attachment of diarrhoeagenic E. coli to the specific receptors in the gastro-intestinal tract. All of the following fimbrial adhesions would be appropriate vaccine candidates except:
1. CFA-l. 2. P1- Pili. 3. CS-2. 4. K88.
131. All of the following conditions are risk factor fL)r urinary tract infections in pregnancy except:
1. Diabetes mellitus.
2. Hypertension../
3. Sickle cell disease..
4. Vesicoureteral reflux.
132. Which one of the following perinatal infections has the highest risk of fetal infection in the first trimester?
1. Hepatitis B virus.~
2. Syphilis.
3. Toxoplasmosis.
4. Rubella.,}
133. All of the following drugs are effective for cervical ripening during pregnancy except:
1. Prostaglandin E2. "
O. _.xytocm.
3. Progesterone.~
4. Misoprostol.
134. All of the following are ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters except:
1. Biparietal diameter. -
2. Head cirumference.
3. Transcerebellar diameter.,
4. Femer length.
135. All of the following are advantages of using Raloxifene over estrogens in post menopausal women except:
I. Reduces fracture rates."'
2. Avoids Endometrial hyperplasia.
3. Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis.
4. No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma.
136. Antiprogesterone compound RU-486 is effective for inducing abortion if the duration of preghancy is:
I 63 days
2. 70 days
3. 88 days.
4. 120 days.
137. Anti-D prophylaxis should be 'given in all of ~ the following conditions except:
1."Medicai abortion for 63 days pregnancy.
2. Amniocentesis at 16 weeks.
3. Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks.
4. Manual removal of Placenta.
138. A case of obstructed labour which was delivered by cesarean section complains of cyclical passage of menstrual blood in urine. Which is the most likely site of fistula ?
I. Urethr'..)vaginal.
2. Vesico-vaginaJ..
3. (Vesico-uterine.
4. Uretero uterine.
139. Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 week of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down's syndrome
I. Triple screen test.
2. Amniocentesis.
3. Chorionic villous biopsy.
4. Ultrasonography
140. The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is:
I. Direct fluorescent antibody test.
2. Enzyme immunoassay.
3. Polymerase chain reaction.
4. Culture on irradiated McConkey cells
141. A case of 35 week pregnancy with Hydramnios and marked respiratory distress is best treated by:
I. intravenous frusemide.
2. Saline infusion.
3. Amniocentesis.
4. Artificial rupture of membranes.
42. The most appropriate method for collecting urine for culture in case of Vesicovaginal fistula is: ,,;'
I. Suprapubic needle aspiration.'
2. Midstream clean catch.
3. Foley's catheter.
4. Sterile speculum.
43. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 27 year old obese woman presenting with oligomenorrhoea, infertility ", and hirsuitism ?
I. Polycystic ovaries.
2. Endometriosis.
3. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
4. Turner's Syndrome.
44. Screening by using maternal seru fetoproteins helps to detect all following except:
I. Neural tube defects.
2. Duodenal Artesia.
3. Talipes equinovarus:.
4. Omphalocele.
45. Which of the following is not an indic Amiphosphoiipid anribody resring:
I. Three or more consecutive first trimester pregnanc)' losses.
2. Unexplained cerebrovascular accidents.
3. Early onset severe pre-eclampsia.
4. Gestational Diabetes.,
146. A fifty year oid woman, presenting with bilateral solid ovarian tumors, has ascitis. Upper gastro-intestinal endoscopy reveals a ulcerative growth in pyloric region of o stomach. The most likely diagnosis is:
I. Malignant ovarian tumor
2. Carcinoma in the small intestine.
3. Carcinoma body uterus.
4. Carcinoma stomach with Krukenberg's ./ tumor.
47. Which ~f the following t~sts ?n. m~ter~al ~ serum IS most useful In dIstInguIshIng '"'~._, between open neural tube defects and ventral 1~. wall defects in a fetus? ,
I. Carcinoembryo antigen.
2. Sphingomyelin.
3. Alpha-feto prote~
4. Pseudocholinesterase.
48. Which of the following tests is most sensitive for the detection of iron depletion in pregnancy'?
I, Serum iron.
2, Serum ferritin.
3, Serum transferrin.
4. Serum iron binding ca~acity.
49. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a vaginal pH of 4?
I. Atrophic vaginitis:J
2. Candidal vaginitis.
3. Trichomonas vaginitis,
4. Gardnerella vaginitis.
50. Which is the most chemotherapeutic agent in Leiomyosarcoma '?
I. Adriamycinl 2. Doxorubicin. 3. Methotrexate. 4. Cisplatin.
1. Which of the following is the best indication for propofol as an intravenous induction agent?
1. Neurosurgery.
2. Day care surgery. .
3. Patients with coronary artery disease,
4. In neonates.
2. Which of the following volatile anaesthetic agents shou.ld be preferred for induction of anaesthesia in children ?
1. Enflurane.
2. Isoflurane.
3. Sevoflurane.
4. Desflurane.
3. When a patient develops supraventricular tachycardia with hypotension under general anaesthesia, all of the following treatments may be instituted except:
1. Carotid sinus massage.
2. Adenosine 3-12 mg IV.
3. Direct current cardioversion.
4. VerapamilS mg IV.
4. A patient undergoing caesarean section following prolonged labour under subarachnoid has block developed carpopedal spasm. Lignocain was used as anesthetic agent. The most likely diagnosis
1. Amniotic fluid embolism.
2. Lignocaine toxicity.
3. Hypocalcemia. .
4. Hypokalemia.
5. A 25 year old male with roadside accident underwent debridement and reduction of fractured both bones right forearm under axillary block. On the second postoperative day the patient complained of persistent numbness and paresthesia in the right forearl11 and the hand. The commonest cause of this neurological dysfunction could be all of the following except:
1. Crush injury to the hand and lacerated nerves.
2. A tight cast or dressing.
3. Systemic toxicity of local anaesthetics.
4. Tourniquet pressure.
6. A five day old, full term male infant was severely cyanotic at birth. Prostaglandin E was administered initially and later balloon atrial septostomy was done which showed improvement in oxygenation. The most likelv diaQnosis of this infant is:
1. TetrologyofFallot.
2. Transposition of great vessels.
3. Truncus Arteriosus.
4. Tricusnid Atresia.
7. The first costochondral joint is a:
1. Fibrous joint.
2. Synovial joint.
3. Syndesmosis.
4. Svncendrosis.
8. Which of the following will be the most important adjuvant therapy in a case of fungal corneal ulcer?
1. Atropine sulphate eye ointment.
2. Dexamethasone eye drops.
3. Pilocarpine eye drops.
4. Lignocaine eye drops.
9. Webbing of neck, increased carrying angle, low posterior hair line and short fourth metacarpal are characteristics of:
1. Klinefelter syndrome.
2. Turner syndrome.
3. Cri du chat syndrome.
4. Noonan syndrome.
10. Which of the following is the feature of y chromosome ?
1. Acrocentric.
2. Telocentric.
3. Submetacentric.
4. Metacentric.
11. Shine -Dalgarno sequence in bacterial mRNA is near:
I. AUG codon.
2. UAA codon.
3. UAG codon
4. UGA codon
12. Which of the following is a membrane- bound enzyme that catalyzes the formation of cyclic AMP from ATP ?
1. Tyrosine kinase. .
2. Polymerase.
3. ATP synthase.
4. Adenlylate cyclase. .,
13. A small Ca2+binding protein that modifies the activity of many enzymes and other proteins in response to changes of Ca2+ concentration, is known as:
1. Cycline.
2. Calmodulin.
3. Collagen.
4. Kinesin.
14. An enzyme that makes a double stranded DNA copy from a single stranded RNA template molecule is known as:
I. DNA polymerase.
2. RNA polymerase.
3. Reverse transcriptase.
4. Phosphokinase.
15. A segment of an eucaryotic gene that is not represented in the mature mRNA, is known as:
I. Intron.
2. Exon.
3. Plasmid.
4. TATA box.
16. The articular cartilage is characterized by all of the following features except :
I. It is devoid of perichondrium.
2. It has a rich nerve supply.
3. It is avascular.
4. It lacks the capacity to regenerate.
17. All of the following are catagorised as secondary lymphoid organs except :
I. Lymph nodes.
2. Spleen. .
3. Thymus..,
4. Subepithelial collections of lymphocytes.
18. While exposing the kidney from behind, all of the following nerves are liable to injury except:
1. Lateral cutaneus nerve ofthigh.,
2. Ilioinguinal nerve.
3. Subcostal nerve.
4. Iliohypogastric nerve.
19. Infection / inflammation of all of the following, causes enlarged superficial inguinal lymph nodes except:
1. Isthmus of uterine tube.
2. Inferior port of anal canal.
3. Big toe.
4. Penile urethra.,
20. An inhaled foreign body is likely to lodge in the right lung due to all of the following features except:
1. Right lung is shorter and wider than left lung.t
2. Right principal bronchus is more vertical than the left bronchus.
3. Tracheal bifurcation directs the foreign body to the right lung.
4. Right inferior lobar bronchus is in continuation with the principal bronchus.
21. Males who are sexually under developed with rudimentary testes and prostate glands, j sparse pubic and facial hair, long arms and legs and large hands & feet are likely to have the chromosome complement of:
1. 46, XYY.
2. 46, XY. .
3. 46, XXY.
4. 46, X.
22. Kinky -hair disease is a disorder where an affected child has peculiar white stubby hair, does not grow, brain degeneration is seen and dies by age of two years. Mrs A is hesitant about having children because her two sisters had sons who had died from kinky hair disease. Her mother’s brother also died of the same condition. Which of the following is the’possible mode of inheritance in her family ?
1. X-Iinked recessive.
2. X-Iinked dominant. ..
3. Autosomal recessive.
4. Autosomal dominant.
23. A young man finds that every time he eats dairy products he feels very uncomfortable. His stomach becomes distended. He develops gas and diarrhea fi.equently. These – symptoms do not appear when he eats foods other than dairy produ~ts. Which of the following is the most likely enzyme in which this young man is deficient ?
1. a-amylase.
2. beta-galactosidase. .
3. a-glucosidase.
4. Sucrase.
24. A person on a fat free carbohydrate rich diet continues to grow obese. Which of the following lipoproteins is likely to be elevated in his blood?
1. Chylomicrons.
2. VLDL.
3. LDL.
4. HDL.
25. The transmembrane region of a protein is likely to have:
1. A stretch of hydrophilic amino acids.
2. A stretch of hydrophobic amino acids.
3. A disulphide loop.
4. Alternating hydrophilic and hydrophobic ammo acIds. .
26. A genetic disorder renders fructose 1,6- bisphosphatase in liver less sensitive to regulation by fructose 2,6-bisphosphate. All of the following metabolic changes are observed in this disorder except:
1. Level of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is higher than normal ~
2. Level of fructose 1,6-bisphosphate is lower than normal. ,
3. Less pyruvate is formed.
4. Less A TP is generated.
27. Xeroderma pigmentosum is produced as a result of a defect in:
1. DNA polymerase II. ”
2. DNA polymerase I.
3. DNA exonuclease.
4. DNA ligase. ,
28. RNA polymerase does not require:
I. Template (ds DNA).
2. Activated precursors (ATP, GTP, UTP, CTP).
3. Divaient metal ions (Mn2+, Mg2+).
4. Primer. .
29. Radio isotopes are used in the following -techniques except:
1. Mass spectroscopy.
2. RIA.
3. ELISA. ,
4. Sequencing of nucleic acid.
30. Alpha helix and Beta pleated sheet are examples of:
1. Primary structure.
2. Secondary structure..
3. Tertiary structure.
4. Quaternary structure.
31. In which of the following forms the Anti diuretic hormone (ADH) is circulated in plasma ?
1. Bound to neurophysin-I.
2. Bound to neurophysin-Il.
3. Bound to plasma albumin.
4. Free form.
32. A 45-year old woman visited her physician with complaints of increased appetite and thirst with increased frequency of urination. She also had the symptoms of diminished or c Impalpable pulses in the feet, besides c gangrene of the feet. Her laboratory findings on the oral glucose tolerance test are as, follows: ,
Parameters
Fasting
1 hr
2hr
Blood glucose[mg/dl]
155
270
205
Urine glucose
-ve
+++
++
Ketone bodies
-ve
-ve
-ve
Which of the following statements is not correct for the above mentioned’case:
1. She was suffering from insulin dependent diabetes me.llitus. .
2. She was suffering from non-insulin dependent diabetes mellitus.
3. She was treated with oral hypoglycemic drugs only when diet control and exercise could not control the pathological situation.
4. Knowledge of family history of diabetes mellitus is useful in predicting the nature of the diabetes.
33. A middle aged woman, on oral contraceptives tor many years, developed neurological symptoms such as depression. irritability, nervousness and mental confusion. Her hemoglobin level was 8 g/dl. Biochemical investigations revealed that she was excreting highly elevated concentrations of xanthurenic acid in urine. She also showed high levels of triglycerides and
cholesterol in serum.
All the above findings are most probably related to vitamin B6 deficiency caused by prolonged oral contraceptive use except:
1. Increased urinary xanthurenic acid excretion. .
2. Neurological symptoms by decreased -I synthesis of biogenic amines.
3. Decreased hemoglobi11level.
4. Increased triglyceride and cholesterol level.
34. Which of the following substances acts to increase the release of Ca++ from endoplasmic reticulum ?
1. Inositol triphosphate.
2. Parathyroid hormone.
3. 1,25-dihydroxy cholecalciferol. .;
4. Diacyl glycerol. .
35. Which of the following elements is known to influence the body’s ability to handle oxidative stress?
1. Calcium.
2. Iron.
3. Potassium.
4. Selenium. .
36. In which of the following conditions the ~ level of creatinine kinase-l increases ?
I. Myocardial Ischemia..
2. Brain Ischemia.
3. Kidney damage.
4. Electrical cardioversion.
37. Proteins targeted for destruction in eukaryotes are covalently linked to:
I. Clathrin. .
2. Pepsin.
3. Laminin.
4. Ubiquitin. .
38. Which of the following can be a homologous . substitution for valine in hemoglobin?
I. Isoleucine.-
2. Glutamic acid.-.
3. Phenylalanine.
4. Lysine.
39. Which of the following groups of proteins assist in the folding of other proteins?
I. Proteases.
2. Proteosomes.
3. Templates.
4. Chaperone~
40. C)rtochrome C of the bacteria has 50% identity of amino acid sequence with that of human. Which of the following is the most conserved parameter in these two proteins?
I. Quaternary structure.-.
2. Tertiary structure.
3. Amino acid sequence..-
4. Loop and turn segments.
41. A highly.ionized drug:
1. Is excreted mainly by the kidneys..
2. Crosses the placental barrier easily.
3. Is well absorbed from the intestine.
4. Is highly protein bound.
42. The following statements are true about DPT vaccine except:
I. Aluminium salt has an adjuvant effect.
2. Whole killed bacteria of Bordetella pertussis has an adjuvant eff~ct. ./ 3. Presence of acellular pertussis component increases its immunogenicity. .
4. Presence of H. influenza type B component increases its immunogenicity.
43. The National Population Policy of India has set the following goals except:
I. To bring down Total Fertility Rate (TFR) to replacement levels by 2015.
2. To reduce the infant Mortality Rate to 30 per 1000 live births.
3. To reduce the Maternal Mortality Rate ; to 100 per 100,000 live births-
4. 100 percent registration of births deaths, marriages and pregnancies.
44. The following statements are true about Intra uterine devices (IUD) except:
I. Multiload Cu-375 is a third generation IUD.
2. The pregnancy rate of Lippes loop and Cu- T 200 are similar. ”
3. IUD can be used for Emergency Contraception within 5 days.
4. Levonorgestrel releasing IUD has an effective life of 5 years.
45. All of the following are used as proxy measures for incubation period except:
1. Latent period.
2. Period of communicability.
3. Serial interval.
4. Generation time.
46. “Five clean practices” under strategies for elimination of neonatal tetanus include all except:
1. Clean surface for delivery.
2. Clean hand of the attendant.
3. New blade for cutting the cord.
4. Clean airway.
47. The current recommendation for breast- feeding is that:
1. Exclusive. breast-feeding should be continued till 6 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods.
2. Exclusive breast-feeding should be continued till 4 months of age followed by supplementation with additional foods. .
3. Colostrum is the most suitable food for a new born baby but it is best avoided in first 2 days.
4. The baby should be allowed to breast- feed till one year of age.
48. According to International Health Regulations, there is no risk of spread of yellow Fever if the Aedes aegypti index remains below:
1. 1%.
2. 5%.
3. 8%.
4. l0%.
49. The following statements about breast milk are true except:
I. The maximum milk output is seen at 12 months. .
2. The coefficient of uptake of iron in breast milk is 70%.
3. Calcium absorption of human milk is better than that of cow’s milk.
4. It provides about 65 K cals per I 00 ml.
50. All of the following statements about leprosy are true except:
I. MultibacilIary leprosy is diagnosed when there are more than 5 skin patches.
2. New case detection rate is an indicator for incidence of leprosy.
3. A defaulter is defined as a patient who has not taken treatment tor 6 months or more.
4. The target for elimination of leprosy is to reduce the prevalence to less than I per 10,000 population.
51. Multi-purpose worker scheme in India was 5 introduced following the recommendation of;
1. Srivastava Committee..
2. Bhore Committee.
3. Kartar Singh Committee.
4. Mudaliar Committee.
52. The usefulness of a ’screening test’ in a community depends on its:
I. Sensitivity. .
2. Specificity.
3. Reliability.
4. redictive value. .
53. It the grading of diabetes is classified as “mild,’ ‘.moderate” and .’severe” the scale of measurement used is;
1. Interval.
2. Nominal. . .;
3. Ordinal. ..
4. Ratio.
54. If preval~ce of diabetes is 10%, the ~ty that three people selected at random from the population will have diabetes is:
I. 0.01.
2. 0.03.
3.0.001..
4. 0.003.
55. A study began in 1970 with a group of 5000 adults in Delhi who were asked about their alcohol consumption. The occurrence
of cancer was studied in this group between 1990-1995. This is an example of:
1. Cross-sectional study.
2. Retrospective cohort study.
3. Concurrent cohort study.
4. Case-control study.
56. The most appropriate test to assess the prevalence of tuberculosis infection in a community is:
1. Mass Miniature Radiography. .
2. Sputum examination..
3. Tuberculin Test.
4. Clinical examination.
57. A 37 weeks pregnant woman attends an antenatal clinic at a Primary Health Centre . She has not had any antenatal care till now. The best approach regarding tetanus immunization in this case would be to:
1. Give a dose of Tetanus Toxoid (TT) and explain [0 her that it will not protect the new born and she should take the second dose after four weeks even if she deiivers in [he meantime.t
2. Do not waste the TT vaccine as it would anyhow be of no use in this pregnan~y.
3. Given one dose ofTT and explain that it \V'ill not be useful for this pregnancy.
4. Give her anti-[etanus Immunoglobulin along with the TT vaccine.
58. Dietary changes advocated by WHO for prevention of heart diseases include all of the follo\V'ing except: ,
1. A decrease in complex carbohydrate consumption. .
2. Reduction in fat intake to 20-30 per cent of caloric intake.
3. Consumption of saturated fats be limited to less than 10% of total energy intake.
4. Reduction of cholesteTol to below 100mg per 1000 kcal per day.
59. Essential components of RCH Programme in India include all of the following except:
1. Prevention and management of unwanted pregnancies.
2. Maternal care including antenatal, delivery & post-natal services.
3. Reduce [he under five mortality to half.
4. Management of reproductive tract infections & sexually transmitted infections.
60. A child aged 4 months was brought to a health worker in the sub center with complaints of cough and fever. On examination, there was chest indrawing and respiratory rate was 45 per minute. Which of the following is best way to manage the child?
1. The child should be classified as a case of pneumonia.
2. Give an antibiotic and advise mother to give home care.
3. Reassess the child within 2 days or earlier if the condition worsens.
4. Refer urgently to hospital after giving the first dose ofan antibiotic. .
61. A 3 Y2 year old child has not received primary immunization. Which of the . following is the best vaccination advice to such a child ?
1. BCG, DPT h OPV h and DPT 2, OPV 2 after 4 weeks. .
2. BCG, DT h OPV h measles, vitamin A.
3. BCO, DPT1, OPVh measles, vitamin A.
4. DT h DT 2 and booster after I year.
62. The table below shows the screening test results of disease Z in relation to the true disease status of the population being tested:
Screening Disease Z Total Test
Results Yes No
Positive 400 200 600
Negative 100 600 700 Total 500 800 1300
} The specificity of the screening test is :
J 1. 70%. \ 2. 75%. 3. 79%. 4. 86%.
63. If each value of a given group of observations is multiplied by 10, the standard deviation of the resulting observations is:
1. Original std. Deviation x 10..
2. Originalstd. Deviation/lO.
3. Original std. Deviation -10.
4. Original std. Deviation it self.
64. Arlt's line is seen in:
tSi' ernal keratoconjunctivitis.
2. rygium.
3. Oc lar pemphigoid.
4. Trachoma",
65. If the systolic blood pressure in a population has a mean of 130 mmHg and a median of 140 mm Hg, the distribution is said to be:
1. Symmetrical.
2. Positively skewed.
3. Negatively skewed. I
4. Either positively or negatively skewed, depending on the Standard deviation.
66. A 30 year old male had severely itchy papulo-vesicular lesions on extremities, knees, elbows and buttocks for one year . Direct immunofluorescence staining of the lesions showed IgA deposition at dermo- epidermal junction. The most probable
diagnosis is:
1. Pemphigus vulgaris.
2. Bullous pemphigoid./
3. Dermatitis herpetiformis.
4. Nummular eczema.
67. A 5 year old male child has multiple hyperpigmented macules over the trunk. On rubbing the lesion with the rounded end of a pen, he developed urticarial wheal, confined to the border of the lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Fixed drug erllption.
2. Lichen planus.
3. Urticaria pigmentosa~
4.. Urticarial vasculitis.. !
68. A 25-year-old man presents with recurrent episodes of flexural eczema, contact urticaria, recurrent skin infections and severe abdominal cramps and diarrhoea upon taking sea foods. He is suffering from:
1. Seborrheic dermatitis.
2. Atopic dermatitis.""'
3. Airborne contact dermatitis.
4. Nummular dermatitis.
69. All of the following are the mode of transmission of leprosy except :
1. Breast milk.
2. Insect bite.""
3. Transplacental spread.
4. Droplet infection.
70. Contre-coup injuries are seen in:
I. Brain.+
2. Heart.
3. Liver. .
4. Pancreas.
71. A newly posted junior doctor had difficulty in finding oUt base deficit /access for blood in given patient. An experienced senior resident gave him advise to find out quick method to determine acid-base composition of blood based on PCO2. Which of the following method he suggested to predict acid-base composition of blood'?
I. Red ford nomogram.
2. DuBio's nomogram.
3. Goldman constant field equation.
4. Siggaard-Andersen nomogram.'./
72. Hydrogen peroxide is used in all the following chemical tests for blood excep~:
I. Benzedine test.
2. Phenophthalein test.
3. Orthotoluidine test.
4. Teichmann's test.
73. Disputed maternity can be solved by using the following tests except:
I. Blood grouping.
2. m..A typing.
3. Preciptin test"
4. DNA fingerprinting.
74. In which of the following conditions post- mortem caloricity may be seen in death due to:
I. Massi ve haemorrhage.
2. Cyanide poisoning.
3. Corrosive poisoning.
4. Septicemia. ./
75. Deep blue colour of hypostasis is seen in death due to poisoning by:
I. Potassium cyanide.
2. Phophorus.
3. Aniline dyes.
4. Carbon monoxide.
76. A 25 year old person sustained injury in right eye. He developed right corneal opacity following the injury. Left eye was already having poor vision. Corneoplasty of right eye was done and vision was restored. Medicolegally such injury is labelled as:
I. Grievous. t'
2. Simple./
3. Dangerous.
4. Serious.
77. A person was brought by police from the railway platform. He is talking irrelevant. He is having dry mouth with hot skin, dilated pupils, staggering gait and slurred speech. The most possible diagnosis is:
I. Alcohol intoxication.
2. Carbamates poisoning.
3. Organophosphorous poisoning.-
4. Datura poisoning./
78. A convict whose family or relations were not known and no biological sample was available with jail authorities, escaped trom the jail. A'dead body resembling the convict was found in nearby forest, but due to mutilation of face, identity could not be established. The positive identity that he is .the same convict who escaped from jail can be established by:
1. Blood Grouping.
2. DNA Profile.
3. Anthropometry...
4. ll.A typing.
79. Which of the fol1owin!! is the most reliable method of estimating blood alcohol level ?
1. Cavett's test.
2. Breath alcohol analyzer.
3. Gas liquid chromatography.
4. Thin layer chromatography.
80. The cephalic index of Indian population is between:
I. 70-75.
2. 75-80.
3. 80-85.01
4. 85-90.
81. A 20-year-old woman presents with bilateralconductive deafness, palpable purpura on the legs and hemoptysis. Radiograph of the chest shows a thin-walled cavity in left lower zone. Investigation~ reveal total leukocyte count I2()()()/mm , red cell casts in the urine and I2,()()()/mm3 serum creatinine 3 mg/dL. What is the most probable diagnosis?
I. Henoch -Schonlein purpura.
2. Polyarteritis nodosa.
3. Wegener's granulomatosis.
4. Disseminated tuberculosis.
82. A woman is admitted with complaints of low-grade fever of 6 weeks duration. Chest radiograph reveals bihilar adenopathy with clear lung fields. All of the fol1owing investigations will be useful in differential
diagnosis except:
1. CD4/CD8 counts in the blood.
2. Serum ACE levels.
3. CECT of chest.
4. Gallium scan.
83. A 15-year-old boy with epilepsy on 88. treatment with combination of valproate and phenytoin has good control of seizures. Levels of both drugs are in the therapeutic range. All of the following adverse effects can be attributed to valproate except:
1. Weight gain of 5 kg.
2. Serum alanine aminotransaminase 150 IU/L.
3. Rise in serum ammonia level by 20 ~g/dL.
4. Lymphadenopathy.
84. A known sputum positive pulmonary 89 tuberculosis patient currently on INH, . rifampicin, p}Tizinamide and ethambutol is found to be HIV positive. His CD4 count was 100/~ and viral load was more th-an 50,000 copies/mI. Which of the following antiretroviral drugs should be avoided:
I. Indinavir.
2. amlvu in.
3. Ritonavir.
4. Efavirenz. .
85. An 18-yr-old boy presents with digital gangrene in third and fourth fingers for last 2 weeks. On examination the blood pressure is 170/110 mm of Hg and all peripheral pulses were palpable. Blood and urine examinations were unremarkable. Antinuclear antibodies, antibody to double stranded DNA and anti neutrophil cytoplasmic antibody were negative. The most likely diagnosis is: 91.
1. Wegener's granulomatosis.
2. Polyarteritis nodosa.
3. Takayasu's arteritisv
4. Systemic lupus erythematosus (SLE).
86. A 21 year old woman presents with complaints of primary amenolThoea. Her height is 153 cm, weight is 51 kg. She has well developed breasts. She has no pubic or axillary hair and no hirsuitism. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis ? 92.
1. Turner syndrome~
2. Stein-Leventhal syndrome~
3. Premature ovarian failure)
4. Complete androgen insensitivity syndrome.
87. A 28-year old lady has put on weight (10 kg over a period of 3 years ), and has oligomenorrhoea followed by amenorrohoea for 8 months. The blood pressure is 160/100 93. mm ofHg. Which of the following is the most appropriate investigation ?
1. Serum electrolytes.
2. Plasma cortisol. .
3. Plasma testosterone and ultrasound evaluation of pelvis.
4. T3, T4 and TSH.
88. A 10 year old boy has a fracture of femur. Biochemical evaluation revealed Hb 11.5 gm/dl and ESR 18 mm I sI hour, Serum calcium 12.8 mg/dl, serum phosphorus 2.3 mg/dl, alkaline phosphatase 28 KA units and Blood urea 32 mg/dl. Which of the following is the most probable diagnosis in his case?
1. Nutritional rickets.
2. Renal rickets. "
3. Hyperparathyroidism
4. Skeletal dysplasia.
89. All of the following are associated with low ~ complement levels except: ! 1
I. Lupus nephritis.
2. Mesangio capillary glomerulonephritis.
3. Diarrhea-associatedhemolytic uremic !syndrome.
4. Post-intections glomerulonephritis.
90. All are true regarding idiopathil: edema of women except:
1. It is due to estrogen mediated sodium retention.
2. It is not related to menstrual cycles.J
3. There is increased water retention in upright position.
4. ACE inhibitors can be useful in some ;
91. Estimation of the follo"wing hormones is 1 useful while investigating a case of j gynaecomastia except: !
1 I. Testosterone.
2. Prolactin.
3. Estradiol.
4. Luteinizing hormone.
92. The occurrence of hyperthyroidism following administration of supplemental iodine to subjects with endemic iodine deficiency goiter is known as: :
I. Jod -Basedow effect..
2. Wolff-Chaikoff effect. ..
3. Thyrotoxicosis factitia.
4. de Quervain's thyroiditis. 1
93. In hematuria of glomerular origin the urine is I characterized by the presence of all the Ifollowing except:
I. Red cell casts.
2. Acanthocytes.
3. Crenated red cells.
4. Dysmorphic red cells.
94. Which one of the following is true regarding i HIV infection:
I. Following needle stick injury infectivity f is reduced by administration of ~ nucleoside analogues.
2. C?4 counts are the best predictors of , disease progression.
3. Infected T cells survive for a month in infected patients.
4. In latent phase HIV is minimal replication.
95. All of the following are true about amiodarone induced thyroid dysfunction except:
I. Hyperthyroidism is common in iodine deficient areas. v
2. Hypothyroidism is more common in men.
3. Amiodarone inhibits deiodinase activity.
4. Amiodarone therapy is associated with initial reduction of serum T 4 levels.
96. All of the following are seen in cardiac temponade except:
I. Pulsus paradoxus.
2. Diastolic coilapse of right ventricle on - echocardiogram.
3. Electrical altemans.
4. Kussmaul.s sign.,
97. All of the following may be used in pregnancy associated hypertension except:
1"" L.. aptopn .
3. Methyldopa.
4. Hydralazine.
98. A 60 year old man with rheumatic mitral steno~is with atrial fibrillation is on therapy for a fast ventricular rate. While on treatment, he developed a regular pulse of 64/min. The most likely drug being administered was:
1. Verapamil.
2. Digoxin.
3. Grvedilol.
4. Propranolol.
99. The best marker to diagnose thyroid related disorders is:
.T:.
2~ .01.
3. TSH.J
4. Thyroglobulin.
100. Elevated serum ferritin, serum iron and percent transferrin saturation are most consistent with the diagnosis of:
1. Iron deficiency anemia.
2. Anemia of chronic disease.
3. Hemochromatosis..;
4. Lead poisoning.
101. Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC) differs from thrombotic thrombocytopenic purpura. In this reference the DIC'is most likely characterized by:
1. Significant numbers of schistocytes.
2. A brisk reticulocytosis..
3. Decreased coagulation factor levels.,
4. Significant thrombocytopenia.
102. A young male develops fever, followed by headache, confusional state, focal seizures and a right hemiparesis. The MRI performed shows bilateral frontotemporal hyperintense lesion. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Acute pyogenic meningitis.
2. Herpes simplex encephalitis.
3. Neurocysticercosis.
4. Carcinomatous meningitis..t
103. A middle aged man presents with paraesthesia of hands and feet. Examination reveals presence of Mees. lines in the nails :md rain drop pigmentation in the hands. The most likely causative toxin for the above mentioned symptoms is:
1. Lead.
2. A1.senic/
3. Thallium.
4. Mercury.
104. A 10 month old child presents with two weeks. history of fever, vomiting and alteration of sensorium. Cranial CT scan reveals basal exudates and hydrocephalus. The most likely etiological agent is:
1. Mycobacterium tuberculosis.
2. Cryp.tococcus neofonnans.
3. Listeria monoc.yto,genes.
4. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
105. All are the features of absence seizures except:
1. Usually seen in childhood.
2. 3-Hz spike wave in EEG.
3. Postictal confusion. J
4. Precipitation by hyperventilation.
106. All of the following can cause neuropathies with predominant motor involvement except:
1. Acute inflammatory demyelinating polyneuropathy.
2. Acute intermittent porphyria../
3. Lead intoxication.
4. Arsenic intoxication.
107. The first investigation of choice in a patient I with suspected subarachnoid haemorrhage r~; should be: ,
1. Non-contrast computed tomography~
2. CSF examination.
3. Magnetic resonance imaging(MRI).
4. Contrast-enhanced computed tomography.
108. A 5 year old girl came with history of progressively increasing pallor since birth and ~ hepatosplenomegaly. Which of the following is the most relevant test for achieving diagnosis:
1. Hb electrophoresis. .
2. Peripheral smear examination.
3. Osmotic fragility test.
4. Bone marrow examination
109. A 5 year old child presents with history of i'Ji fever off-and-on for past 2 weeks and -C" petechial spots allover the body and f~ increasing pallor for past I month. Examination reveals splenomegaly of 2 cms below costal margin. The most likely ,,:j: diagnosis is:
1. Acute leukemia.
2. Idiopathic thrombocytopenic purpura.
3. Hypersplenism. .
4. Aplastic anemia.
110. A nine month old boy of Sindhi parents presented to you with complaints of progressive lethargy, irritability & pallor since 6 months of age. Examination revealed severe Pallor. Investigations showed Hb -3.8 gm %; MCV-:- 58 fl; MCH -19.4 pg/ cell. Blood film shows osmatic fragility is normal (target cells and normoblasts). X-ray skull shows expansion of erythroid marrow. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Iron deficiency anemia.
2. Acute lymphoblastic anFmia.
3. Hemoglobin D disease
4. Hereditary spherocytosis:
III. A 20 year-old man presented with hemorrhagic colitis. The stool sample grew Escherichia coli in pure culture. The following serotype of E. coli is likely to be the causative agent:
1. O 157:H7{ 2. O 159:H7. 3. O 107:H7. 4. O 55:H7.
112. Haemophilus injluenzae has been isolated from the CSF of a two-year old boy suffering from meningitis. The strain is beta-Iactamase producing and resistant to chloramphenicol. The most appropriate antimicrobial choice in such a situation is:
1. Trimethoprim-sulphamethoxazole combination"
2. Ciprofloxacin.
3. Third-generation cephalosporin.
4. Vancomycin.
113. A 30 year-old woman with a bad obstetric history presents with fever. The blood culture from the patient grows Gram-positive small to medium coccobacilli that are pleomorphic. occurring in short chains. Direct wet mount -- from the culture shows tumbling motility. The most likely organism is:
I. Listeria lIlonocytogenes..J
2. Corynebacterium sp.
3. Enterococcus sp.
4. EI)'sipelothri.\ rhusiopathiae.
114. The most common agent associated with .neonatal bacterial meningitis is:
I. Haelllophilus injluenzae type b.
2. Neisseria lIleningitidis.
3. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
4. Streptococcus agalactiae.
115. In all of the following bacterial diarrhoeas toxins are implicated as a major pathogenetic mechanism except:
1. Vibrio cholerae.
2. Shigella sp.
3. Vibrio parahaelllolyticus.
4. Staphylococcus aureus.
116. A young pregnant woman presents with fulminant hepatic failure. The most likely aetiological agent is:
1. Hepatitis B virus.
2. Hepatitis C virus.
3. Hepatitis E virus./
4. Hepatitis A virus.
117. An HIV positive patient complains of visual disturbances. Fundal examination shows bilateral retinal exudates and perivascular heamorrahges. Which of the following viruses are most likely to be responsible for this retinitis:
I. Herpes simple_, virus.
2. Human herpes virus 8.
3. Cytomegalovirus. ,/
4. Epstein-Barr(EB) vints.
118. All of the following clinical features are associated with Enteroviruses except:
I. Myocarditis. 2. Pleurodynia. . 3. Herpangina. 4. Hemorrhagic fever. ../
119. Which of the following statements is true regarding ARBO viruses?
I. Yellow fever is endemic in India.
2. Dengue virus has only one serotype;
3. Kyasanur Forest dise'Jse (KFD) is transmitted by ticW
4. Mosquito of culex vishnoi-complex is the vector of Dengue fever .
120. Laboratory diagnosis of viral respiratory tract infections can be established by all of the following tests except:
1. Detection of virus specific IgM antibodies in single serum specimen.
2. Demonstration of viral antigens by indirect immunofluorescence assay in nasopharyngeal washings.
3. Isolation of viruses using centrifugation enhanced culture.1
4. Detection of viral heamagglutination inhibiting (HAl) andibodies in a single serum specimen.
121. All of the following statements are true regarding potiovirus except:
I. It is transmitted by feco-oral route.
2. Asymptomatic infections are common in children.
3. There is a single serotype causing infectiorfl:'
4. Live attenuated vaccine produces herd immunity.
122 An infant develops cough and fever. The X- ray examination is suggestive of bronchopneumonia. All of the following viruses can be the causative agent except:
1. Parainfl[tenza viruses.
2. Influenza virus A.
3. Respiratory syncytial virus.
4. Mumps virus.
123. Which of the following viruses is common cause of viral encephalitis ?
1. Herpes simplex virus type 2.
2. Japanese encephalitis virus.
3. Nipah virns.
4. Cytomegalovirus
24. A 25 year old woman had premature rupture of membranes and delivered a male child who became lethargic and apneic on the Ist day of birth and went into shock. The mother had a previous history of abortion I year back. On culture, her vaginal swab growth of r3- haemolytic colonies on blood agar was found. On staining these were found to be gram positive cocci. Which of the following is the most likely etiological agent ?
1. Streptococcus pyogenes.
2. Streptococcus agalactiae. .;
3. Peptostreptococci.
4. Enterococcus faecium.
25. A post-operative patient developed septicemia and was empirically started on combination chemotherapy by anew resident doctor. However, when the patient did not respond even after 10 days of antibiotics treatment, the review of the charts was done. It was found that the resident doctor had started the combination of antibiotics which was mutually antagonistic in action. Which one of the following is the most likely' combination that was given?
1. Vancomycin and Amikacin.
2. Cephelexin and Gentamicin.
3. Ampicillin and Chloramphenicol.
4. Ciprofloxacin and Piperacillin.
126. A farmer presenting with fever'Off-and-on for the past 4 years was diagnosed to be suffering from chronic brucellosis. All of the following serological tests would be helpful in the diagnosis at this stage except:
1. Standard Agglutination test.
2. 2 Mercapto-ethanol test.
3. Complement fixation test.
4. Coomb's test..I
127. A man, after. skinning a dead animal, developed a pustule on his hand. A smear prepared from the lesion showed the presence of Gram positive bacilli in long chains which were positive for McFadyean's reaction. The most likely aetiological agent is:
1. Clostridilt/1l tetani.
2. Listeria monocytogenes.
3. Bacillus anthracis. .;
4. Actinomyces sp.
128. Which of the following toxins acts by inhibiting protein synthesis:
1. Cholera toxin.
2. Shiga toxin.
3. Pertussis toxin}
4. LT ofenterotoxigenic E.coli.
129. A 20 years old ma.le patient presents to the STD clinic with a genital ulcer. The gram stain of the smear from ulcer shows ~m vegative coccobacilli. The most appropriate media for cuiture wouid be:
1. Thayer-Martin Medium."'
J 2. Blood agar with X & V factors.
3. Chocolate agar with isovitale X.
4. Tellurite blood agar .
130. A microbiologist wants to develop a vaccine for prevention of attachment of diarrhoeagenic E. coli to the specific receptors in the gastro-intestinal tract. All of the following fimbrial adhesions would be appropriate vaccine candidates except:
1. CFA-l. 2. P1- Pili. 3. CS-2. 4. K88.
131. All of the following conditions are risk factor fL)r urinary tract infections in pregnancy except:
1. Diabetes mellitus.
2. Hypertension../
3. Sickle cell disease..
4. Vesicoureteral reflux.
132. Which one of the following perinatal infections has the highest risk of fetal infection in the first trimester?
1. Hepatitis B virus.~
2. Syphilis.
3. Toxoplasmosis.
4. Rubella.,}
133. All of the following drugs are effective for cervical ripening during pregnancy except:
1. Prostaglandin E2. "
O. _.xytocm.
3. Progesterone.~
4. Misoprostol.
134. All of the following are ultrasonographic fetal growth parameters except:
1. Biparietal diameter. -
2. Head cirumference.
3. Transcerebellar diameter.,
4. Femer length.
135. All of the following are advantages of using Raloxifene over estrogens in post menopausal women except:
I. Reduces fracture rates."'
2. Avoids Endometrial hyperplasia.
3. Reduces incidence of venous thrombosis.
4. No increase in incidence of breast carcinoma.
136. Antiprogesterone compound RU-486 is effective for inducing abortion if the duration of preghancy is:
I 63 days
2. 70 days
3. 88 days.
4. 120 days.
137. Anti-D prophylaxis should be 'given in all of ~ the following conditions except:
1."Medicai abortion for 63 days pregnancy.
2. Amniocentesis at 16 weeks.
3. Intrauterine transfusion at 28 weeks.
4. Manual removal of Placenta.
138. A case of obstructed labour which was delivered by cesarean section complains of cyclical passage of menstrual blood in urine. Which is the most likely site of fistula ?
I. Urethr'..)vaginal.
2. Vesico-vaginaJ..
3. (Vesico-uterine.
4. Uretero uterine.
139. Which of the following is the investigation of choice in a pregnant lady at 18 week of pregnancy with past history of delivering a baby with Down's syndrome
I. Triple screen test.
2. Amniocentesis.
3. Chorionic villous biopsy.
4. Ultrasonography
140. The most sensitive method for detecting cervical Chlamydia trachomatis infection is:
I. Direct fluorescent antibody test.
2. Enzyme immunoassay.
3. Polymerase chain reaction.
4. Culture on irradiated McConkey cells
141. A case of 35 week pregnancy with Hydramnios and marked respiratory distress is best treated by:
I. intravenous frusemide.
2. Saline infusion.
3. Amniocentesis.
4. Artificial rupture of membranes.
42. The most appropriate method for collecting urine for culture in case of Vesicovaginal fistula is: ,,;'
I. Suprapubic needle aspiration.'
2. Midstream clean catch.
3. Foley's catheter.
4. Sterile speculum.
43. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis in a 27 year old obese woman presenting with oligomenorrhoea, infertility ", and hirsuitism ?
I. Polycystic ovaries.
2. Endometriosis.
3. Pelvic inflammatory disease.
4. Turner's Syndrome.
44. Screening by using maternal seru fetoproteins helps to detect all following except:
I. Neural tube defects.
2. Duodenal Artesia.
3. Talipes equinovarus:.
4. Omphalocele.
45. Which of the following is not an indic Amiphosphoiipid anribody resring:
I. Three or more consecutive first trimester pregnanc)' losses.
2. Unexplained cerebrovascular accidents.
3. Early onset severe pre-eclampsia.
4. Gestational Diabetes.,
146. A fifty year oid woman, presenting with bilateral solid ovarian tumors, has ascitis. Upper gastro-intestinal endoscopy reveals a ulcerative growth in pyloric region of o stomach. The most likely diagnosis is:
I. Malignant ovarian tumor
2. Carcinoma in the small intestine.
3. Carcinoma body uterus.
4. Carcinoma stomach with Krukenberg's ./ tumor.
47. Which ~f the following t~sts ?n. m~ter~al ~ serum IS most useful In dIstInguIshIng '"'~._, between open neural tube defects and ventral 1~. wall defects in a fetus? ,
I. Carcinoembryo antigen.
2. Sphingomyelin.
3. Alpha-feto prote~
4. Pseudocholinesterase.
48. Which of the following tests is most sensitive for the detection of iron depletion in pregnancy'?
I, Serum iron.
2, Serum ferritin.
3, Serum transferrin.
4. Serum iron binding ca~acity.
49. Which of the following conditions is most likely to be associated with a vaginal pH of 4?
I. Atrophic vaginitis:J
2. Candidal vaginitis.
3. Trichomonas vaginitis,
4. Gardnerella vaginitis.
50. Which is the most chemotherapeutic agent in Leiomyosarcoma '?
I. Adriamycinl 2. Doxorubicin. 3. Methotrexate. 4. Cisplatin.