AIIMS MAY 2011 FULLY SOLVED

which method used to detect movement of protein in cell nucleus and cytoplasm ?

a. fish
b.frap
c.electron microscopy
d. concave microscopy

answrer - frap

Fluorescence recovery after photobleaching (FRAP) denotes an optical technique capable of quantifying the two dimensional lateral diffusion of a molecularly thin film containing fluorescently labeled probes, or to examine single cells. This technique is very useful in biological studies of cell membrane diffusion and protein binding. In addition, surface deposition of a fluorescing phospholipid bilayer (or monolayer) allows the characterization of hydrophilic (or hydrophobic) surfaces in terms of surface structure and free energy. Similar, though less well known, techniques have been developed to investigate the 3-dimensional diffusion and binding of molecules inside the cell; they are also referred to as FRAP

Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa is due to
1 mutation in type VII collagen -- ANS
2 laminin5

Dystrophic epidermolysis bullosa is due to mutation in type VII collagen which is present in the anchoring fibrils and anchoring plaques (below the lamina densa of dermoepidermal junction). More than 600 different mutations have been reported in the type VII collagen gene which explains the diversity of the clinical severity. Both dominant (DDEB) and recessive form (RDEB) occur in this type.

all true about exenatibe except
a. glucagon like peptide analogue
b.used in type 1 diabetes mellitus
c. administered subcutaneously
d. decrease glucagon level

Exenatide (INN) (marketed as Byetta) is a medication (incretin mimetics) approved (Apr 2005) for the treatment of diabetes mellitus type 2.exenatide is administered as a subcutaneous injection (under the skin) of the abdomen, thigh, or arm, 30 to 60 minutes before the first and last meal of the day
answer - b
it is used in type 2 dm only

which should be given in case of patient in hypogycemia already on insulin and acarbose ?
a. maltose
b. starch
c. glucose
d. sucrose
answer - c

because pt on alpha glucosidase inhibitor , so other than glucose nothing wont be better for correcting hypoglycemia because it take time to split complex sugars / sucrose / disaccharides

a 70 yr patient niidm underwent macular dot laser surgey for non proliferative retinopathy with macular edema sev weeks back now complain of macular vitreal traction . what is the treatment now ?
a. macula r laser surgery
b. nd yag laser photo coagulation
c. panvitreotomy
d. intravitreal bevacizumab

answer - d
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a male child with fanconi anemia with hypercalciuria variant of dents disease all are true except
a. hypercalciuria
b. his father must be affected
c. proteinuria
d.rickets

answer - b
dents disease is x linked recessive . the child s father will be normal , mother will be carrier

cystic fibrosis patient have risk of
a.
b.
c. pseudomonas aeroginosa ( non mucoid colonies)
d. Burkholderia cepacia


answer : d
pseudomonas aeroginosa mucoid colonies affect cf not non mucoid colonies

ScienceDaily (Mar. 23, 2009) — The unexpected behaviour of a family of "superbugs" called the Burkholderia cepacia complex (Bcc) could have implications for the treatment of cystic fibrosis (CF) patients. CF patients produce large quantities of sticky mucus in their lungs that is difficult to expel and is easily infected by bacteria.

according to european laryngological society which type subligamental cordectomy belong to ?

a. type 1
b. type 2
c.type 3
d.type 4

answer - b
The European Laryngological Society is proposing a classification of different laryngeal endoscopic cordectomies in order to ensure better definitions of post-operative results. We chose to keep the word "cordectomy" even for partial resections because it is the term most often used in the surgical literature.
The classification comprises eight types of cordectomies:
a subepithelial cordectomy (type I), which is resection of the epithelium;
a subligamental cordectomy (type II), which is a resection of the epithelium, Reinke's space and vocal ligament;
transmuscular cordectomy (type III), which proceeds through the vocalis muscle;
total cordectomy (type IV);
extended cordectomy, which encompasses the contralateral vocal fold and the anterior commissure (type Va);
extended cordectomy, which includes the arytenoid (type Vb);
extended cordectomy, which encompasses the subglottis (type Vc); and
extended cordectomy, which includes the ventricle (type Vd). Indications for performing those cordectomies may vary from surgeon to surgeon. The operations are classified according to the surgical approach used and the degree of resection in order to facilitate use of the classification in daily practice. Each surgical procedure ensures that a specimen is available for histopathological examination.

Cardiac Polyp is a term used for Postmortem (AIIMS 81)
a. Fibrinous clots in heart
b. Aneurysm
c. Infarcts in heart
d. Benign growth in heart

(a) Fibrinous clots in heart (Ref: R - 96)
Post Mortem clots:-
i) When blood clots rapidly a soft, lumpy, uniformly dark - red, slippery, moist clot is produced (black current jelly).
ii) When red cells sediment before blood coagulates the red cells produce a clot similar to the first type - Above this, a pale or bright yellow layer of serum and fibrin is seen (chicken fat).Both of them are moist, smooth shiny rubbery, homogenous, loosely or not at all attached to the underlying wall. They are called cardiac polyps.

Triplet DNA is due to
a. Hoogsteen base pair
b. Palindromic sequences
c. mutiple pyrimidine repeats
d. multiple GC repeats

answer is hoogsten base pair

A Hoogsteen base pair is a variation of base-pairing in nucleic acids such as the A•T pair. In this manner, two nucleobases on each strand can be held together by hydrogen bonds in the major groove. A Hoogsteen base pair applies the N7 position of the purine base (as a hydrogen bond acceptor) and C6 amino group (as a donor), which bind the Watson-Crick (N3–N4) face of the pyrimidine base.

Repeats (11-29)


11. Ideal contraceptive for newly married couple is OCP:
12. Axillary sheath neurovascular bundle derived from prevertebral: 13.Formication/delusion of persicution seen in cocaine
14. Garlicky odor and pigmentation over nail ---definately Arsenic:
15. Gall bladder showing comet tail appearance - Adenomyomatosis:
16. Central dot sign on CT Scan ---- Carolis disease:
17. Cis atracurium is preferrable to atracurium because of less histamine release
18. Sphinter of oddi.. has 3 sphincters:
19. Incidence can be calculatd by prospective study:
20. after digestion by restriction endo nuclease dna strands can be joined by DNA ligase:
21. all of the following muscles retract the scapula but not Levator scapulae:
22.All of the following is involved in development of carcinoma colon except?
A. APC
B. Beta catenin
C. K Ras
D. Mismatch repair genes

Familial a polypis. all of the following is involved in development of ca colon except beta Carotene


23. BRAC1 is on 17 chr

24. A lady with no complains but mild cervical lymphadenopathy in ist trimester comes to a doctor who prescribes her spiromycin but she was non compliant baby born with hydrocephalous and intercerebral calcification likely cause is: Toxoplasmosis
25. STREPTOCOCCUS all are true except pyrogenic toxin a is plasmid mediated

26. Tumour marker for GIST: CD 117
27. Enclomiphene is anti estrogenic
28. Test for ovarian reserve: FSH
29. Laudosine is a metabolite of atracurium

30


True regarding animals that are chronically exposed to cold?
A. Increased sympathetic stimulation
B. Inhibition of vagal inhibition to heart
C. Increased insulin levels in blood
D. decreased blood flow to adipose tissue


dont know the ans guys

31-Repeat


A patient with steroid resistant nephrotic syndrome has been given 3 doses of intravenous methylprednisolone, Serum creatinine – 0.8mg/dl, serum albumin – 2g/dl, cholesterol – 350mg/dl. What is the preferred treatment?
A. Oral cyclophosphamide x 3 months
B. Oral mycophenolate x 6 months
C. Cyclosporine
D. IV cyclophosamide x 6 months

A. Oral cyclophosphamide x 3 months

32 Repeat

True about non typhoid salmonella?
A. Invasive in infants
B. Blood culture more sensitive than stool in adults
C. Poultry acts as a source of infection
D. Fluoroquinolone resistance is seen in some clinical reports


B. Blood culture more sensitive than stool in adults
Rates of morbidity and mortality associated with NTS are highest among the elderly, infants, and immunocompromised individuals, including those with hemoglobinopathies, HIV infection, or infections that cause blockade of the reticuloendothelial system (e.g., bartonellosis, malaria, schistosomiasis, and histoplasmosis).

Unlike S. Typhi and S. Paratyphi, whose only reservoir is humans, NTS can be acquired from multiple animal reservoirs. Transmission is most commonly associated with animal food products, especially eggs, poultry, undercooked ground meat, and dairy products and fresh produce contaminated with animal waste.

Because of increased resistance to conventional antibiotics such as ampicillin and TMP-SMX, extended-spectrum cephalosporins and fluoroquinolones have emerged as the agents of choice for the treatment of MDR NTS infections

Infection with NTS most often results in gastroenteritis indistinguishable from that caused by other enteric pathogens-Up to 5% of patients with NTS gastroenteritis develop bacteremia
The diagnosis of NTS infection is based on the isolation of the organism from freshly passed stool or from blood or another ordinarily sterile body fluid. All salmonellae isolated in clinical laboratories should be sent to local public health departments for serotyping. Blood cultures should be done whenever a patient has prolonged or recurrent fever. Endovascular infection should be suspected if there is high-grade bacteremia (>50% of three or more blood cultures positive).

33-Repeat


Gall bladder poylps have risk of malignancy if
A. Polyp is associated with gall stones
B. Polyp size > 5 mm
C. ??
D. ??


A. Polyp is associated with gall stones

All are true regarding carcinoma pancreas except?
A. 75% cases have p53 mutation
B. 5 year survival rate after pancreatico duodenectomy is 10-15%
C. Stage III cancer median survival is 3-6 months
D. ??


ans a

he molecular genetics of pancreatic adenocarcinoma have been well studied. Of these tumors, 80-95% have mutations in the KRAS2 gene; 85-[snip]% have mutations, deletions, or hypermethylation in the CDKN2 gene; 50% have mutations in p53; and about 55% have homozygous deletions or mutations in Smad4. Some of these mutations can also be found in high-risk precursors of pancreatic cancer. For example, in chronic pancreatitis, 30% of patients have detectable mutations in p16 and 10% have K-ras mutations.

35 repeat


Not seen in Gestational Diabetes?
A. Previous macrosomic baby
B. Congenital malformation
C. Polyhydramnios
D. Obesity

B. Congenital malformation

36 Repeat


Lady gets Chicken pox 3 days before delivery of the baby. What is the baby’s prognosis?
a) No risk to mother or child
b) Intrapartum antiviral therapy required
c) Fetopathic effects seen
d) risk of developing neonatal varicella syndrome

d) risk of developing neonatal varicella syndrome

37 repeat


Which among the following is not a feature of Horner’s syndrome?
A. Ptosis
B. Miosis
C. Loss of sweating
D. Apparent exophthalmos



D. Apparent exophthalmos
Horner syndrome



Horner syndrome is a rare condition that affects the nerves to the eye and face.

Causes, incidence, and risk factors

Horner syndrome can be caused by any interruption in a set of nerve fibers that start in the part of the brain called the hypothalamus and run to the face.

Sympathetic nerve fiber injuries can result from:

Injury to one of the main arteries to the brain (carotid artery)

Injury to nerves in the neck called the brachial plexus

Migraine or cluster headaches

Stroke, tumor, or other damage to a part of the brain called the brainstem

Tumor in the top of the lung

Rarely, Horner syndrome may be present at birth (congenital). The condition may occur with a lack of color (pigmentation) of the iris (colored part of the eye).

Symptoms

Decreased sweating on the affected side of the face

Drooping eyelid (ptosis)

Sinking of the eyeball into the face

Small (constricted) pupil (the black part in the center of the eye)

There may also be symptoms of the disorder that is causing the problem.

Signs and tests

An eye examination may show:

Changes in how the pupil opens or closes

Eyelid drooping

A complete medical and nervous system (neurological) examination can show whether any other parts of the body are affected.

Other tests may include:

Blood tests

Blood vessel tests (cerebral angiogram, CT angiogram, or MR angiogram

Chest x-ray or chest CT scan

MRI or CT scan of the brain

Spinal tap (lumbar puncture)

You may need to be referred to a doctor who specializes in vision problems related to the nervous system (neuro-ophthalmologist).

Treatment

Treatment depends on the cause of the problem. There is no treatment for Horner syndrome itself.

38 repeat

True statement regarding the kidney is?
A. Clearance will be more than GFR if the substance is secreted into the tubule
B. Descending limb is permeable to solutes
C. Fluid coming from the descending limb is hypotonic
D. Clearance of a substance is always more than GFR if there is tubular secretion


A. Clearance will be more than GFR if the substance is secreted into the tubule

All are true about mucinous neoplasm of pancreas except?
A. Has coloumnar epithelium
B. Ovarian tissue may be found in it
C. Associated with ascites
D. Is premalignant

A. Has coloumnar epithelium
The three main premalignant epithelial lesions of the pancreas are Pancreatic Intraepithelial Neoplasia (PanIN), Mucinous Cystic Neoplasms (MCNs) and Intraductal Papillary Mucinous Neoplasms (IPMNs).

epithelium is pappillary