AIPGE 2005 complete 300 Questions
1. The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the following conditions except:
1. In a difficult intubation
2. In a cardiopulmonary resuscitation
3. In a child undergoing an elective / routine eye surgery.
4. In a patient with a large tumor in the oral cavity.
2. The following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except:
1. Ketamine
2. Ondansetron
3. Propofol.
4. Dexamethasone.
3. Which one of the following anaesthetic agents causes a rise in the intracranial pressure:
1. Sevoflurane
2. Thiopentone sodium
3. Lignocaine
4. Propofol
4. The following modes of ventilation may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except:
1. Controlled Mechanical ventilation (CMV)
2. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)
3. Pressure support ventilation (PSV)
4. Assist – control ventilation (ACV)
5. The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are;
1. Gram positive organisms
2. Gram negative organisms
3. Mycoplasma
4. Virus infections
6. A Lower Segment Caesarean Section (LSCS) can be carried out under all the following techniques anaesthesia except:
1. General anaesthesia
2. Spinal anaesthesia
3. Caudal anaesthesia
4. Combined Spinal Epidural
7. The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneonsly breathing infant during anaesthesia is:
1. Jackson Rees modification of Ayres T Piece.
2. Mapleson A or Magill’s circuit.
3. Mapleson C or Waters to and fro canister.
4. Bains circuit.
8. The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function test in a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes:
1. Increased RV/TLC
2. Reduced FEV1/FVC
3. Reduced FEV25-75.
4. Increased FRC.
9. Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of reflux?
1. Ondansetron.
2. Metoclopramide
3. Sodium citrate.
4. Atropine.
10. Which one of the following is true of adrenal suppression due to steroid therapy?
1. It is not associated with atrophy of the adrenal glands.
2. It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids.
3. It should be expected in anyone receiving > 5 mg, Prednisolone daily.
4. Following cessation, the stress response normalizes after 8 weeks.
11. The carpal tunnel contains all of the following important structures except:
1. Median Nerve.
2. Flexor pollicis longus.
3. Flexor carpi radialis.
4. Flexor digitorum superficialis.
12. The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except;
1. Femoral vein
2. Inguinal ligament
3. Femoral artery
4. Lacunar ligament.
13. All of the following statements regarding vas deference are true except:
1. The terminal part is dilated to form ampulla.
2. It crosses ureter in the region of ischial spine.
3. It passes lateral to inferior epigastric artery at deep inguinal ring.
4. It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum.
14. The following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve are true except that it:
1. Carries secretomotor fibers to slubmandibular gland.
2. Joins lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa
3. Is a branch of facial nerve.
4. Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
15. A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is?
1. Xenograft
2. Autograft
3. Allograft
4. Isograft.
16. The type of joint between the sacrum and coccyx is a:
1. Symphysis
2. Syostosis
3. Synchondrosis
4. Syndesmosis
17. The prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the following geatures, except that it:
1. Is the widest and most dilatable part.
2. Presents a concavity posteriorly.
3. Lies closer to anterior surface of prostate.
4. Receives prostatic ductules along its posterior wall.
18. All of the following areas are commonly involved sites in pelvic fracture except:
1. Pubic rami
2. Alae of ileum
3. Acetabula
4. Ischial tuberosities.
19. The following group of lymph nodes receives lymphatics from the uterus except;
1. External iliac.
2. Internal iliac.
3. Superficial inguinal.
4. Deep inguinal
20. All of the following physiological processes occur during the growth at the epiphyseal plate except;
1. Proliferation and hypertrophy.
2. Calcification and ossification.
3. Vasculogenesis and erosion.
4. Replacement of red bone marrow with yellow marrow.
21. Benign prostatic hypertrophy results in obstruction of the urinary tract. The specific condition is associated with enlargement of the:
1. Entire prostate gland.
2. Lateral lobes.
3. Median lobe.
4. Posterior lobes.
22. In an adult male, on per rectal examination, the following structures can be felt anteriorly except:
1. Internal iliac lymph nodes.
2. Bulb of the penis.
3. Prostate.
4. Seminal vesicle when enlarged.
23. While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along:
1. Upper border of the rib.
2. Lower border of the rib.
3. In the center of the intercostals space.
4. In anterior part of intercostals space.
24. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is known as:
1. Transduction.
2. Transformation.
3. Transcription.
4. Integration.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 465, 55
25. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle:
1. Interphase.
2. Metaplase.
3. G1 phase.
4. Telophase.
26. The type of hemoglobin that has least affinity for 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) or (2,3-BPG) is:
1. Hg A.
2. Hg F.
3. Hg B.
4. Hg A2.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 134, Table 11.1
27. Cellular and flagellar movement is carried out by all of the following except:
1. Intermediate filaments.
2. Actin.
3. Tubulin.
4. Myosin.
Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 13
28. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in:
1. Kidney.
2. Liver
3. Spleen
4. Bone marrow.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 477 (you are free to have your answer)
29. An example of a tumour suppressor gene is:
1. Myc.
2. Fos.
3. Ras.
4. Rb.
30. HIV can be detected and confirmed by:
1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
2. Reverse Transcriptase – PCR
3. Real Time PCR
4. Mimic PCR.
Refer Harrison 15th Edition Chap 309
31. Which one of the following molecules is used for cell signaling?
1. CO2
2. O2
3. NO
4. N2
32. All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except:
1. Adrenalin
2. Growth Hormone.
3. Insulin
4. Thyroxine.
33. Fluoride, used in the collection of blood samples for glucose estimation, inbibits the enzyme:
1. Glucokinase.
2. Hexokinase.
3. Enolase.
4. Glucose-6-phosphatase.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 272
34. In the small intestine, cholera toxin acts by:
1. ADP-ribosylation of the G regulatory protein.
2. Inhibition of adenyl cyclase.
3. Activation of GTPase.
4. Active absorption of NaCl.
Refer Ganong 19th Edition Page 42
35. The following is not a feature of malignant transformation by cultured cells:
1. Increased cell density.
2. Increased requirement for growth factors.
3. Alterations of cytoskeletal structures.
4. Loss of anchorage.
36. Osteoclasts are inhibited by:
1. Parathyroid hormone.
2. Calcitonin.
3. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
4. Tumor necrosis factor.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 507
37. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with:
1. IgM antibodies.
2. Lysozyme.
3. Mast cells.
4. IgA antibodies.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 397 (Lysozymes to cannot be ignored)
38. A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is:
1. Ames test.
2. Redox test.
3. Bacteriophage.
4. Gene splicing.
39. The predominant isozyme of LDH in cardiac muscle is:
1. LD-1
2. LD-2
3. LD-3
4. LD-5
Refer Chaterjee 4th Edition Page 572 and 2nd Edition Pages 264 and 967
40. Both Vitamin K and C are involved in:
1. The synthesis of clotting factors.
2. Post translational modifications.
3. Antioxidant mechanisms.
4. The microsomal hydroxylation reactions.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Pages 155 and 157
41. Enzymes that move a molecular group from one molecule to another are known as:
1. Ligases.
2. Oxido-reductases.
3. Transferases.
4. Dipeptidases.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 111
42. The membrane protein, clathrin is involved in:
1. Cell motility.
2. Receptor-mediated endocytosis.
3. Exocytosis.
4. Cell shape.
Refer Ganong 21st Edition Page 29, Fig 1.26
43. A highly ionized drug:
1. Is excreted mainly by the kidney.
2. Can cross the placental barrier easily.
3. Is well absorbed from the intestine.
4. Accumulates in the cellular lipids.
Refer KD Tripathi 5th Edition Page 750
44. The amino acid residue having an imino side chain is:
1. Lysine.
2. Histidine.
3. Tyrosine.
4. Proline.
Refer Harper 24th Edition Page 25
45. CO2 is primarily transported in the arterial blood as:
1. Dissolved CO2
2. Carbonic acid
3. Carbamino-hemoglobin
4. Bicarbonate.
Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 674
46. ‘Endemic Dissease’ means that a disease:
1. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy.
2. Is constantly present in a given population group.
3. Exhibits seasonal pattern.
4. Is prevalent among animals.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 86
47. Which one of the following is a good index of the severity of an acute disease?
1. Cause specific death rate.
2. Case fatality rate.
3. Standardized mortality ratio.
4. Five year survival.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 52
48. Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true?
1. Influence of smoking is independent of other risk factors for CHD.
2. Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD.
3. Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk factors for CHD.
4. Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 289
49. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an adult is a single dose of:
1. Tetracycline.
2. Co-trimoxazole.
3. Doxycycline.
4. Furazolidone.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 181
50. All of the following statements are true about Congenital Rubella except:
1. It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies at birth.
2. It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies persist for more than 6 months.
3. Most common congenital defects are deafness, cardiac malformations and cataract.
4. Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major congenital defects.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 128-129
51. The recommended daily energy intake of an adult woman with heavy work is:
1. 1800
2. 2100
3. 2300
4. 2900
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 461
52. All of the following methods are antilarval measures except:
1. Intermittent irrigation.
2. Paris green.
3. Gamusia affinis.
4. Malathion.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 579
53. All of the following are true about the Herd Immunity for infectious diseases except:
1. It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by the protection of immunized individuals.
2. It is likely to be more for infections that do not have a sub-clinical phase.
3. It is affected by the presence and distribution of alternative animal hosts.
4. In the case of tetanus it does not protect the individual.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 95
54. The best indicator for monitoring the impact of Iodine Deficiency Disorders control programme is:
1. Prevalence of goiter among school children.
2. Urinary iodine levels among pregnant women.
3. Neonatal Hypothyroidism.
4. Iodine level in soil
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 467 (I believe in Park !!)
55. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts:
1. Yellow.
2. Black.
3. Red.
4. Blue.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 598
56. WHO defines adolescent age between:
1. 10-19 years of age.
2. 10-14 years of age.
3. 10-25 years of age.
4. 9-14 years of age.
Refer Nelson 15th Ed, Table 15.1
57. In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain disease. The results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are as follows.
Test result
Disease
Present
Absent
+
180
400
-
20
400
What is the percent prevalence of disease?
1. 0.20
2. 2.
3. 18.
4. 20.
58. The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of milk except:
1. Phosphatase test.
2. Standard plate count.
3. Coliform count.
4. Methylene blue reduction test.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 477
59. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cm:
1. 27
2. 30
3. 33
4. 36
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 317
60. The most common side effect of IUD insertion is:
1. Bleeding
2. Pain
3. Pelvic infection
4. Ectopic pregnancy.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 365
61. For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except:
1. Give Immunoglobulins for passive immunity.
2. Give ARV.
3. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage.
4. Immediately wash wound with soap and water.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 220
62. A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg. and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from:
1. Very severe disease.
2. Severe Pneumonia.
3. Pneumonia.
4. No Pneumonia.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 142 Table 4
63. The information technology has revolutionized the world of medical sciences. In which of the following year the Information Technology Act was passed by the Government of India?
1. 1998
2. 2000
3. 2001
4. 2003
Refer the Act
64. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India in:
1. 1996
2. 1993
3. 1998
4. 1994
Refer the Act
65. Which one of the following is not source of manager’s power?
1. Reward
2. Coercive
3. Legitimate.
4. Efferent.
Refer : Study Material for Training of Medical Officers – PHC
66. The standard normal distribution:
1. Is skewed to the left
2. Has mean = 1.0
3. Has standard deviation = 0.0
4. Has variance = 1.0
67. The PEFR of a group of 11 year old girls follow a normal distribution with mean 300 1/min and standard deviation 20 1/min:
1. About 95% of the girls have PEFR between 260 and 340 1/min.
2. The girls have healthy lungs.
3. About 5% of girls have PEFR below 260 1/min.
4. All the PEFR must be less than 340 1/min.
68. The events A and B are mutually exclusive, so:
1. Prob (A or B) = Prob (A) + Prob (B)
2. Prob (A and B) = Prob (A). Prob (B)
3. Prob (A) = Prob (B)
4. Prob (A) + Prob (B) = 1
69. Total Cholesterol level = a+b (Calorie intake) + C (physical activity) +d (body mass index); is an example of:
1. Simple linear regression
2. Simple curvilinear regression
3. Multiple linear regression
4. Multiple logistic regression.
70. The Hb level in healthy woman has mean 13.5 g/dl and standard deviation 1.5 g/dl, what is the Z score for a woman with Hb level 15.0 g/dl:
1. 9.0
2. 10.0
3. 2.0
4. 1.0
71. The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by:
1. Sensitivity
2. Specificity
3. Positive predictivity
4. Negative predictivity.
72. Infant mortality does not include:
1. Early neonatal mortality.
2. Perinatal mortality.
3. Post neonatal mortality.
4. Late neonatal mortality.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 415
73. A cardiologist found a highly significant correlation coefficient (r=0.90, p=0.01) between the systolic blood pressure values and serum cholesterol values of the patients attending his clinic. Which of the following statements is a wrong interpretation of the correlation coefficient observed?
1. Since there is a high correlation, the magnitudes of both the measurements are likely to be close to each other.
2. A patient with a high level of systolic BP is also likely to have a high level of serum cholesterol.
3. A patient with a low level of systolic BP is also likely to have a low level of serum cholesterol.
4. About 80% of the variation in systolic blood pressure among his patients can be explained by their serum cholesterol values and vice a versa.
74. All of the following drugs are effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor except:
1. Selenium sulphide.
2. Ketoconazole.
3. Griseofulvin.
4. Clotrimazole.
75. A 36-year-old factory worker developed itchy, annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Erythema annulare centrifugum.
2. Granuloma annulare.
3. Annular lichen planus.
4. Tinea cruris.
76. A 16-year-old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple, erythematous, annular lesions with a callarette of scales at the periphery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Pityriasis versicolor.
2. Pityriasis alba.
3. Pityriasis rosea.
4. Pityriasis rubra pilaris.
77. The only definite indication for giving systemic corticosteroids in pustular psoriasis is:
1. Psoriatic enythroderma with pregnancy.
2. Psoriasis in a patient with alcoholic cirrhosis.
3. Moderate arthritis.
4. Extensive lesions.
78. A 40-year-old woman presents with a 2 year history of erythematous papulopustular lesions on the convexities of the face. There is a background of erythema and telangiectasia. The most likely diagnosis in the patient is:
1. Acne vulgaris.
2. Rosacea.
3. Systemic lupus Erythematosus.
4. Polymorphic light eruption.
79. An 8-year-old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 months history of an illdefined, hypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Pityriasis alba.
2. Indeterminate leprosy.
3. Morphoca.
4. Calcium deficiency.
80. A 27-year-old sexually active male develops a vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Behcet’s syndrome.
2. Herpes genitalis.
3. Fixed drug eruption
4. Pemphigus vulgaris.
81. In a firearm injury, there is burning, blackening, toattooing around the wound, along with cherry red colour of the surrounding tissues and is cruciate in shape, the injury is:
1. Close shot entry.
2. Close contact exit.
3. Contact shot entry.
4. Distant shot entry.
Refer Apurva Nandy 1st Ed, Page 249. Remember that there will be no Tattooing AROUND the wound in Contact Shot or Exit Shot
82. In methyl alcohol poisoning there is CNS depression cardiac depression and optic nerve atrophy. These effects are produced due to:
1. Formaldehyde and formic acid.
2. Acetaldehyde.
3. Pyridine.
4. Acetie acid.
Refer KD Tripathi 5th Edition Page 354
83. In chronic arsenic poisoning the following samples can be sent for laboratory examination except:
1. Nail clippings.
2. Hair samples.
3. Bone biopsy.
4. Blood sample.
Refer Apurva Nandy 1st Ed, Page 497
84. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding diatom?
1. Diatoms are aquatic unicellular plant.
2. Diatoms has an extracellular coat composed of magnesium.
3. Acid diagestion technique is used to extract diatoms.
4. Presence of diatoms in the femoral bone marrow is an indication of antemartem inhalation of water.
Refer Reddy 17th Edition Page 294 (Diatoms have chlorophyll)
85. In India, magistrate inquest is done in the following cases except:
1. Exhumation cases.
2. Dowry deaths within 5 years of marriage.
3. Murder cases.
4. Death of a person in police custody.
Refer Reddy 17th Edition Page 6
86. At autopsy, the cyanide poisoning case will show the following features, except:
1. Characteristic bitter lemon smell.
2. Congested organs.
3. The skin may be pinkish or cherry red in colour.
4. Erosion and haemorrhages in oesophagus and stomach.
Refer Reddy 17th Edition Page 492 (read this page before arguing about the answer)
87. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s method of identification is:
1. Cementum apposition.
2. Transparency of root.
3. Attrition.
4. Root resorption.
Refer Apurva Nandy 1st Ed, Page 63
88. The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his criminal act is:
1. 7 years.
2. 12 years.
3. 16 years.
4. 21 years.
Refer Narayana Reddy 17th Ed, Page 63
89. The most reliable method of identification of an individual is:
1. Dactylography.
2. Scars.
3. Anthropometry.
4. Handwriting.
Refer Reddy 17th Edition Page 66
90. The most common pattern of fingerprint is:
1. Arch.
2. Loop.
3. Whorl.
4. Composite.
Refer Narayana Reddy 17th Ed, Page 67
91. A 30-year-old male patient presents with complaints of weakness in right upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers on right side and 5th finger on left lside. On examination, BP was 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. Investigations showed a Hb-12 gm, TLC – 12000 Cu mm, Platelets 4,30,000, ESR – 49 mm. Urine examination showed proteinuria and RBC – 10-15/ hpf with no casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Polyarteritis nodosa.
2. Systemic lupus Erythematosus.
3. Wegener’s granulomatosis.
4. Mixed cryoglobulemia.
92. Which of the following infestation leads to malabsorption?
1. Giardia lamblia.
2. Ascaris lumbricoides.
3. Necater Americana.
4. Ancylostoma duodenale.
93. All of the following can cause osteoporosis except:
1. Hyperparathyroidism.
2. Steroid use.
3. Fluorosis.
4. Thyrotoxicosis.
94. Serum angiotensin converting enzyme may be raised in all of the following except:
1. Sarcoidosis.
2. Silicosis.
3. Berylliosis.
4. Bronchogenic carcinoma.
95. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by:
1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
2. Parthyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
3. Interleukin – 6 (IL-6)
4. Calcitonin.
96. All of the following are the causes of relative polycythemia except:
1. Dehydration.
2. Dengue haemorrhagic fever.
3. Gaisbock syndrome.
4. High altitude.
97. All of the following may cause ST segment elevation on EKG, except:
1. Early repolarization variant
2. Constrictive pericarditis.
3. Ventricular aneurysm.
4. Prinzmetal angina.
98. 5’ – Nucleotidase activity is increased in:
1. Bone diseases.
2. Prostate cancer.
3. Chronic renal failure.
4. Cholestatic disorders.
99. Normal CSF glucose level in a normoglycemic adult is:
1. 20-40 mg/dl
2. 40-70 mg/dl
3. 70-90 mg/dl
4. 90-110 mg/dl.
100. Bart’s hydrops fetalis is lethal because:
1. Hb Bart’s cannot bind oxygen.
2. The excess a-globin form insoluble precipitates.
3. Hb Bart’s cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues.
4. Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placenta.
101. Cluster headache is characterized by all except:
1. Affects predominantly females.
2. Unilateral headache.
3. Onset typically in 20-50 years of life.
4. Associated with conjunctival congestion.
102. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is:
1. Elevated serum A Ch-receptor binding antibodies.
2. Repetitive nerve stimulation test.
3. Positive edrophonium test.
4. Measurement of jitter by single fibre electromyography.
103. Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except:
1. Myelopathy.
2. Optic atrophy.
3. Peripheral neuropathy.
4. Myopathy.
104. EEG is usually abnormal in all of the following except:
1. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
2. Locked – in state.
3. Creutzfoldt – Jackob disease.
4. Hepatic encephalopathy.
105. All of the following are neurologic channelopathies except:
1. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis.
2. Episodic ataxia type 1.
3. Familial hemiplegic migraine.
4. Spinocerebellar ataxia 1.
106. According to the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) a verbal score of 1 indicates:
1. No response.
2. Inappropriate words.
3. Incomprehensible sounds.
4. Disoriented response.
107. Which of the following is not a neuroparasite?
1. Taenia solium.
2. Acant amoeba.
3. Naegleria.
4. Trichinella spiralis.
108. A 50-year-old man, an alcoholic and a smoker presents with a 3 hour history of severe retrosternal chest pain and increasing shortness of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was constant and radiated to the back and interscapular region. He was a known hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130/min, and a BP of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP was normal. All peripheral pulses were present and equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest x-ray showed left pleural effusion.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Acute aortic dissection.
2. Acute myocardial infarction.
3. Rupture of the esophagus.
4. Acute pulmonary embolism.
109. Which of the following is a cause of reversible dementia?
1. Subacute combined degeneration.
2. Picks disease.
3. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease.
4. Alzheimer’s disease.
110. Which one of the following drugs is ‘Topoisomerase 1 inhibitor’?
1. Doxorubicin.
2. Irinotecan.
3. Etoposide.
4. Vincristine.
111. Study the following carefully:
Read the pedigree. Inheritance pattern of the disease in the family is:
1. Autosomal recessive type.
2. Autosomal dominant type.
3. X Linked dominant type.
4. X Linked recessive type.
112. Palpable purpura could occur in the following conditions, except:
1. Thrombocytopenia.
2. Small-vessel vasculitis.
3. Disseminated gonococcal infection.
4. Acute meningococcemia.
113. A 59-year-old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic, with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% and an end-systolic diameter index of 2.9 cm/m2. The most appropriate treatment is:
1. Mitral valve repair of replacement.
2. No treatment.
3. ACE inhibitor therapy.
4. Digoxin and diuretic therapy.
114. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is:
1. Dual energy X-ray absorptimetry.
2. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry.
3. Ultrasound.
4. Quantiative computed tomography.
115. Nevirapine is a:
1. Protease inhibitor.
2. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
3. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
4. Fusion inhibitor.
116. With reference to infections with Escherichia coli the following are true except:
1. Enteroaggregative E. coli is associated with pwesistent diarrhoea.
2. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli can cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome.
3. Enteroinvasive E. coli produces a disease similar to salmonellosis.
4. Enterotoxigenic E.coli is a common cause of travelers diarrhoea.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 279
117. The following statements are true regarding melioidosis except:
1. It is caused by Burkholderia mallei.
2. The agent is a grain negative aerobic bacteria.
3. Bipolar staining of the aetiological agent is seen with methylene blue stain.
4. The most common form of melioidosis is pulmonary infection.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 322
118. The following bacteria are most often associated with acute neonatal meningitis except:
1. Escherichia coli.
2. Streptococcus agalactiae.
3. Neisseria meningitidis.
4. Listeria monocytogenes.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 204 and Nelson 16th Ed, Pages 540, 751
119. All of the following Vibrio sp. Are halophilic, except:
1. V. cholerae.
2. V. parahaemolyticus.
3. V. alginolyticus.
4. V. fluvialis.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 316
120. All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except:
1. Neisseria meningitides.
2. Salmonella typhi.
3. Streptococcus pyogenes.
4. Legionella pneumophila.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Pages 224, 295, 409
121. The capsule of Cryptococus neoformans in a CSF sample is best seen by:
1. Grams stain.
2. India ink preparation.
3. Giemsa stain.
4. Methanamine – Silver stain.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 621
122. In Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome, the retinal vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome?
1. Optic radiation.
2. Optic tract.
3. Cerebellum.
4. Pulvinar.
123. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except:
1. Tissue culture.
2. Embryonated eggs.
3. Animals.
4. Chemicaly defined media.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 438
124. It is true regarding the normal microbial flora present on the skin and mucous membranses that:
1. It cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial agents.
2. It is absent in the stomach due to the acidic pH.
3. It establishes in the body only after the neonatal period.
4. The flora in the small bronchi is similar to that of the trachea.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Pages 599 – 601
125. An army jawan posted in a remote forest area had fever and headache. His fever was 104°F and pulse was 70 per mibn. He had an erythematous lesion of about 1 cm on the leg surrounded by small vesicles, along with generalized lymphadenopathy at the time of presentation to the referral hospital. His blood sample was collected to perform serology for the diagnosis of Rickettsial disease. Which one of the following results in Weil-felix reaction will be diagnostic in this clinical setting:
1. High OX-2.
2. High OX-19.
3. High OX-K.
4. High OX-19 and OX-2.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 418
126. Adenosine deaminase (enzyme) deficiency is associated with:
1. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
2. X-linked agammaglobulinemia.
3. Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy.
4. Chronic granulomatous disease.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 156
127. Which of the following viral infections is transmitted by tick?
1. Japanese encephalitis.
2. Dengue fever.
3. Kyasanur forest disease (KFD).
4. Yellow fever.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 531
128. Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the following microbial agents except:
1. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
2. Legionella pemmophila.
3. Human Corona virus.
4. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 397 and Harrison 15th Edition Chapter 255
129. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum?
1. IgG1.
2. IgG2.
3. IgG3.
4. IgG4.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 100
130. Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with the following except:
1. Endemic trachoma.
2. Inclusion conjunctivitis.
3. Lymphogranuloma venereum.
4. Community acquired pneumonia.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 424
131. The following statements are true regarding Clostridium perfringens except:
1. It is commonest cause of gas gangrene.
2. It is normally present in human faeces.
3. The principal toxin of C.perfringens is the alpha toxin.
4. Gas gangrene producing strains of C.perfringens produce heat resistant spores.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 249
132. The most common organism amongst the following that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patients is:
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
2. Streptococcus agalactiae.
3. Cryptococcus neoformans.
4. Listeria monocytogenes.
Refer Harrison 15th Edition Page 309
133. A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3 “Rs” i.e., rats, ricefields, and rainfall is:
1. Leptospirosis.
2. Plague.
3. Melioidosis.
4. Rodent-bite fever.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page and Anathanarayanan 7th Ed, page 332 (I prefer Melioidosis)
Till there is a solid reference, Please consider this question as “wrong” while calculating your “net”
134. A child was diagnosed to be suffering from diarrhoea due to Compylobacter jejuni. Which of the following will be the correct environmental conditions of incubation of the culture plates of the stool sample:
1. Temperature of 42°C and microaerophilic.
2. Temperature of 42°C and 10% carbon dioxide.
3. Temperature of 37°C and microaerophilic.
4. Temperature of 37°C and 10% carbon dioxide.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 406. I prefer Choice 2
135. Which one of the following statements is true regarding Chlamydia pneumoniae:
1. Fifteen serovars have been identified as human pathogens.
2. Mode of transmission is by the airborne bird excreta.
3. The cytoplasmic inclusions present in the sputum specimen are rich in glycogen.
4. The group specific antigen is responsible for the production of complement fixing antibodies.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 424. I prefer Choice 3
136. Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus:
1. Echogenic foci in heart.
2. Hyperechogenic bowel.
3. Choroid plexus cysts.
4. Nuchal edema.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 687
Nuchal Edema 38 % Risk, Hyperechogenic bowel 11 % risk and Choroid plexus cyst 0 % risk according to Williams
137. The highest incidence of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease is in:
1. Australia.
2. Asia.
3. North America.
4. Western Europe.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 206
138. The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is:
1. Interspinous diameter.
2. Diagonal conjugate.
3. True conjugate.
4. Intertuberous diameter.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 96
139. The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is:
1. Choriocarcinoma.
2. Dysgerminoma.
3. Embryonal cell tumor.
4. Malignant Teratoma.
Refer Dutta Gynaec 2nd Edition Page 345
140. Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly:
1. Coarctation of aorta.
2. Fallot’s tetrology.
3. Ebstein’s anomaly.
4. Transposition of great arteries.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 296 and Williams 21st Edition Page 1188
141. Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease:
1. IUCD.
2. Depoprovera.
3. Diaphragm.
4. Oral contraceptive pills.
Refer Williams 20th Edition Page 1211
142. The karyotype of a patient with Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is:
1. 46xx.
2. 46xy.
3. 47xxy.
4. 45xo.
Refer Dutta Gynaec 2nd Edition Page 396
143. The following drug is not helpful in the treatment of ectopic Pregnancy:
1. Methothrexate.
2. Misoprostol.
3. Actinomycin-D.
4. RU 486
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 202 and Williams 20th Edition Page 624
144. The best period of gestation to carry out chorion villous biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is?
1. 8 -10 weeks.
2. 10 -12 weeks
3. 12 – 14 weeks.
4. 14 – 16 weeks.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 113
145. Which one of the follwing biochemical parameters is the most sensitive to detect open spina bifida?
1. Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein.
2. Amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein.
3. Amniotic fluid acetyl cholinesterase.
4. Amniotic fluid glucohexaminase.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 112 and also Williams clearly gives that MSAFP is used for Screening even though AF AChe is more specific
146. Risk of preterm delivery is increased if cervical length is:
1. 2.5 cm.
2. 3.0 cm.
3. 3.5 cm.
4. 4.0 cm.
Refer Williams 21st Edition Page 701
147. Diagnosis of beta Thalassemia is established by:
1. NESTROFT Test.
2. Hb A1 C estimation.
3. Hb electrophoresis.
4. Target cells in peripheral smear.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 292 and Nelson 16th Ed, Page 1484
148. All are the risk factors associated with macrosomia except:
1. Maternal obesity.
2. Prolonged Pregnancy.
3. Previous large infant.
4. Short Stature.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 340 and Nelson 15th Edition Table 80.2
149. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to pregnant women with epilepsy?
1. The rate of congenital malformation is increased in the offspring of women with epilepsy.
2. Seizure frequency increases in approximately 70% of women.
3. Breast feeding is safe with most anticonvulsants.
4. Folic acid supplementation may reduce the risk of neural tube defect.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 316 and Harrison 15th Edition Chapter 360
150. All are the causes of intrauterine growth retardation except:
1. Anemia.
2. Pregnancy induced hypertension.
3. Maternal heart disease.
4. Gestational diabetes.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 497 and Nelson 15th Edition Table 82.4
1. The laryngeal mask airway used for securing the airway of a patient in all of the following conditions except:
1. In a difficult intubation
2. In a cardiopulmonary resuscitation
3. In a child undergoing an elective / routine eye surgery.
4. In a patient with a large tumor in the oral cavity.
2. The following are used for treatment of postoperative nausea and vomiting following squint surgery in children except:
1. Ketamine
2. Ondansetron
3. Propofol.
4. Dexamethasone.
3. Which one of the following anaesthetic agents causes a rise in the intracranial pressure:
1. Sevoflurane
2. Thiopentone sodium
3. Lignocaine
4. Propofol
4. The following modes of ventilation may be used for weaning off patients from mechanical ventilation except:
1. Controlled Mechanical ventilation (CMV)
2. Synchronized intermittent mandatory ventilation (SIMV)
3. Pressure support ventilation (PSV)
4. Assist – control ventilation (ACV)
5. The most common pathogens responsible for nosocomial pneumonias in the ICU are;
1. Gram positive organisms
2. Gram negative organisms
3. Mycoplasma
4. Virus infections
6. A Lower Segment Caesarean Section (LSCS) can be carried out under all the following techniques anaesthesia except:
1. General anaesthesia
2. Spinal anaesthesia
3. Caudal anaesthesia
4. Combined Spinal Epidural
7. The most appropriate circuit for ventilating a spontaneonsly breathing infant during anaesthesia is:
1. Jackson Rees modification of Ayres T Piece.
2. Mapleson A or Magill’s circuit.
3. Mapleson C or Waters to and fro canister.
4. Bains circuit.
8. The abnormal preoperative pulmonary function test in a patient with severe kyphoscoliosis includes:
1. Increased RV/TLC
2. Reduced FEV1/FVC
3. Reduced FEV25-75.
4. Increased FRC.
9. Which one of the following drugs has been shown to offer protection from gastric aspiration syndrome in a patient with symptoms of reflux?
1. Ondansetron.
2. Metoclopramide
3. Sodium citrate.
4. Atropine.
10. Which one of the following is true of adrenal suppression due to steroid therapy?
1. It is not associated with atrophy of the adrenal glands.
2. It does not occur in patients receiving inhaled steroids.
3. It should be expected in anyone receiving > 5 mg, Prednisolone daily.
4. Following cessation, the stress response normalizes after 8 weeks.
11. The carpal tunnel contains all of the following important structures except:
1. Median Nerve.
2. Flexor pollicis longus.
3. Flexor carpi radialis.
4. Flexor digitorum superficialis.
12. The femoral ring is bounded by the following structures except;
1. Femoral vein
2. Inguinal ligament
3. Femoral artery
4. Lacunar ligament.
13. All of the following statements regarding vas deference are true except:
1. The terminal part is dilated to form ampulla.
2. It crosses ureter in the region of ischial spine.
3. It passes lateral to inferior epigastric artery at deep inguinal ring.
4. It is separated from the base of bladder by the peritoneum.
14. The following statements concerning chorda tympani nerve are true except that it:
1. Carries secretomotor fibers to slubmandibular gland.
2. Joins lingual nerve in infratemporal fossa
3. Is a branch of facial nerve.
4. Contains postganglionic parasympathetic fibers.
15. A woman with infertility receives an ovary transplant from her sister who is an identical Twin. What type of graft it is?
1. Xenograft
2. Autograft
3. Allograft
4. Isograft.
16. The type of joint between the sacrum and coccyx is a:
1. Symphysis
2. Syostosis
3. Synchondrosis
4. Syndesmosis
17. The prostatic urethra is characterized by all of the following geatures, except that it:
1. Is the widest and most dilatable part.
2. Presents a concavity posteriorly.
3. Lies closer to anterior surface of prostate.
4. Receives prostatic ductules along its posterior wall.
18. All of the following areas are commonly involved sites in pelvic fracture except:
1. Pubic rami
2. Alae of ileum
3. Acetabula
4. Ischial tuberosities.
19. The following group of lymph nodes receives lymphatics from the uterus except;
1. External iliac.
2. Internal iliac.
3. Superficial inguinal.
4. Deep inguinal
20. All of the following physiological processes occur during the growth at the epiphyseal plate except;
1. Proliferation and hypertrophy.
2. Calcification and ossification.
3. Vasculogenesis and erosion.
4. Replacement of red bone marrow with yellow marrow.
21. Benign prostatic hypertrophy results in obstruction of the urinary tract. The specific condition is associated with enlargement of the:
1. Entire prostate gland.
2. Lateral lobes.
3. Median lobe.
4. Posterior lobes.
22. In an adult male, on per rectal examination, the following structures can be felt anteriorly except:
1. Internal iliac lymph nodes.
2. Bulb of the penis.
3. Prostate.
4. Seminal vesicle when enlarged.
23. While doing thoracocentesis, it is advisable to introduce needle along:
1. Upper border of the rib.
2. Lower border of the rib.
3. In the center of the intercostals space.
4. In anterior part of intercostals space.
24. Virus mediated transfer of host DNA from one cell to another is known as:
1. Transduction.
2. Transformation.
3. Transcription.
4. Integration.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 465, 55
25. Barr body is found in the following phase of the cell cycle:
1. Interphase.
2. Metaplase.
3. G1 phase.
4. Telophase.
26. The type of hemoglobin that has least affinity for 2,3-Diphosphoglycerate (2,3-DPG) or (2,3-BPG) is:
1. Hg A.
2. Hg F.
3. Hg B.
4. Hg A2.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 134, Table 11.1
27. Cellular and flagellar movement is carried out by all of the following except:
1. Intermediate filaments.
2. Actin.
3. Tubulin.
4. Myosin.
Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 13
28. Heme is converted to bilirubin mainly in:
1. Kidney.
2. Liver
3. Spleen
4. Bone marrow.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 477 (you are free to have your answer)
29. An example of a tumour suppressor gene is:
1. Myc.
2. Fos.
3. Ras.
4. Rb.
30. HIV can be detected and confirmed by:
1. Polymerase Chain Reaction (PCR)
2. Reverse Transcriptase – PCR
3. Real Time PCR
4. Mimic PCR.
Refer Harrison 15th Edition Chap 309
31. Which one of the following molecules is used for cell signaling?
1. CO2
2. O2
3. NO
4. N2
32. All of the following hormones have cell surface receptors except:
1. Adrenalin
2. Growth Hormone.
3. Insulin
4. Thyroxine.
33. Fluoride, used in the collection of blood samples for glucose estimation, inbibits the enzyme:
1. Glucokinase.
2. Hexokinase.
3. Enolase.
4. Glucose-6-phosphatase.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 272
34. In the small intestine, cholera toxin acts by:
1. ADP-ribosylation of the G regulatory protein.
2. Inhibition of adenyl cyclase.
3. Activation of GTPase.
4. Active absorption of NaCl.
Refer Ganong 19th Edition Page 42
35. The following is not a feature of malignant transformation by cultured cells:
1. Increased cell density.
2. Increased requirement for growth factors.
3. Alterations of cytoskeletal structures.
4. Loss of anchorage.
36. Osteoclasts are inhibited by:
1. Parathyroid hormone.
2. Calcitonin.
3. 1,25-dihydroxycholecalciferol.
4. Tumor necrosis factor.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 507
37. The protective effects of breast milk are known to be associated with:
1. IgM antibodies.
2. Lysozyme.
3. Mast cells.
4. IgA antibodies.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 397 (Lysozymes to cannot be ignored)
38. A simple bacterial test for mutagenic carcinogens is:
1. Ames test.
2. Redox test.
3. Bacteriophage.
4. Gene splicing.
39. The predominant isozyme of LDH in cardiac muscle is:
1. LD-1
2. LD-2
3. LD-3
4. LD-5
Refer Chaterjee 4th Edition Page 572 and 2nd Edition Pages 264 and 967
40. Both Vitamin K and C are involved in:
1. The synthesis of clotting factors.
2. Post translational modifications.
3. Antioxidant mechanisms.
4. The microsomal hydroxylation reactions.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Pages 155 and 157
41. Enzymes that move a molecular group from one molecule to another are known as:
1. Ligases.
2. Oxido-reductases.
3. Transferases.
4. Dipeptidases.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 111
42. The membrane protein, clathrin is involved in:
1. Cell motility.
2. Receptor-mediated endocytosis.
3. Exocytosis.
4. Cell shape.
Refer Ganong 21st Edition Page 29, Fig 1.26
43. A highly ionized drug:
1. Is excreted mainly by the kidney.
2. Can cross the placental barrier easily.
3. Is well absorbed from the intestine.
4. Accumulates in the cellular lipids.
Refer KD Tripathi 5th Edition Page 750
44. The amino acid residue having an imino side chain is:
1. Lysine.
2. Histidine.
3. Tyrosine.
4. Proline.
Refer Harper 24th Edition Page 25
45. CO2 is primarily transported in the arterial blood as:
1. Dissolved CO2
2. Carbonic acid
3. Carbamino-hemoglobin
4. Bicarbonate.
Refer Ganong 21st Edtion Page 674
46. ‘Endemic Dissease’ means that a disease:
1. Occurs clearly in excess of normal expectancy.
2. Is constantly present in a given population group.
3. Exhibits seasonal pattern.
4. Is prevalent among animals.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 86
47. Which one of the following is a good index of the severity of an acute disease?
1. Cause specific death rate.
2. Case fatality rate.
3. Standardized mortality ratio.
4. Five year survival.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 52
48. Which one of the following statements about influence of smoking on risk of coronary heart disease (CHD) is not true?
1. Influence of smoking is independent of other risk factors for CHD.
2. Influence of smoking is only additive to other risk factors for CHD.
3. Influence of smoking is synergistic to other risk factors for CHD.
4. Influence of smoking is directly related to number of cigarettes smoked per day.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 289
49. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating cholera in an adult is a single dose of:
1. Tetracycline.
2. Co-trimoxazole.
3. Doxycycline.
4. Furazolidone.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 181
50. All of the following statements are true about Congenital Rubella except:
1. It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM antibodies at birth.
2. It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies persist for more than 6 months.
3. Most common congenital defects are deafness, cardiac malformations and cataract.
4. Infection after 16 weeks of gestation results in major congenital defects.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 128-129
51. The recommended daily energy intake of an adult woman with heavy work is:
1. 1800
2. 2100
3. 2300
4. 2900
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 461
52. All of the following methods are antilarval measures except:
1. Intermittent irrigation.
2. Paris green.
3. Gamusia affinis.
4. Malathion.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 579
53. All of the following are true about the Herd Immunity for infectious diseases except:
1. It refers to group protection beyond what is afforded by the protection of immunized individuals.
2. It is likely to be more for infections that do not have a sub-clinical phase.
3. It is affected by the presence and distribution of alternative animal hosts.
4. In the case of tetanus it does not protect the individual.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 95
54. The best indicator for monitoring the impact of Iodine Deficiency Disorders control programme is:
1. Prevalence of goiter among school children.
2. Urinary iodine levels among pregnant women.
3. Neonatal Hypothyroidism.
4. Iodine level in soil
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 467 (I believe in Park !!)
55. What is the color-coding of bag in hospitals to dispose off human anatomical wastes such as body parts:
1. Yellow.
2. Black.
3. Red.
4. Blue.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 598
56. WHO defines adolescent age between:
1. 10-19 years of age.
2. 10-14 years of age.
3. 10-25 years of age.
4. 9-14 years of age.
Refer Nelson 15th Ed, Table 15.1
57. In a village having population of 1000, we found patients with certain disease. The results of a new diagnostic test on that disease are as follows.
Test result
Disease
Present
Absent
+
180
400
-
20
400
What is the percent prevalence of disease?
1. 0.20
2. 2.
3. 18.
4. 20.
58. The following tests are used to check the efficiency of pasteurization of milk except:
1. Phosphatase test.
2. Standard plate count.
3. Coliform count.
4. Methylene blue reduction test.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 477
59. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight is 89 kg and height is 172 cm:
1. 27
2. 30
3. 33
4. 36
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 317
60. The most common side effect of IUD insertion is:
1. Bleeding
2. Pain
3. Pelvic infection
4. Ectopic pregnancy.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 365
61. For the treatment of case of class III dog bite, all of the following are correct except:
1. Give Immunoglobulins for passive immunity.
2. Give ARV.
3. Immediately stitch wound under antibiotic coverage.
4. Immediately wash wound with soap and water.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 220
62. A 2-year-old female child was brought to a PHC with a history of cough and fever for 4 days with inability to drink for last 12 hours. On examination, the child was having weight of 5 kg. and respiratory rate of 45/minute with fever. The child will be classified as suffering from:
1. Very severe disease.
2. Severe Pneumonia.
3. Pneumonia.
4. No Pneumonia.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 142 Table 4
63. The information technology has revolutionized the world of medical sciences. In which of the following year the Information Technology Act was passed by the Government of India?
1. 1998
2. 2000
3. 2001
4. 2003
Refer the Act
64. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was passed by Government of India in:
1. 1996
2. 1993
3. 1998
4. 1994
Refer the Act
65. Which one of the following is not source of manager’s power?
1. Reward
2. Coercive
3. Legitimate.
4. Efferent.
Refer : Study Material for Training of Medical Officers – PHC
66. The standard normal distribution:
1. Is skewed to the left
2. Has mean = 1.0
3. Has standard deviation = 0.0
4. Has variance = 1.0
67. The PEFR of a group of 11 year old girls follow a normal distribution with mean 300 1/min and standard deviation 20 1/min:
1. About 95% of the girls have PEFR between 260 and 340 1/min.
2. The girls have healthy lungs.
3. About 5% of girls have PEFR below 260 1/min.
4. All the PEFR must be less than 340 1/min.
68. The events A and B are mutually exclusive, so:
1. Prob (A or B) = Prob (A) + Prob (B)
2. Prob (A and B) = Prob (A). Prob (B)
3. Prob (A) = Prob (B)
4. Prob (A) + Prob (B) = 1
69. Total Cholesterol level = a+b (Calorie intake) + C (physical activity) +d (body mass index); is an example of:
1. Simple linear regression
2. Simple curvilinear regression
3. Multiple linear regression
4. Multiple logistic regression.
70. The Hb level in healthy woman has mean 13.5 g/dl and standard deviation 1.5 g/dl, what is the Z score for a woman with Hb level 15.0 g/dl:
1. 9.0
2. 10.0
3. 2.0
4. 1.0
71. The diagnostic power of a test to correctly exclude the disease is reflected by:
1. Sensitivity
2. Specificity
3. Positive predictivity
4. Negative predictivity.
72. Infant mortality does not include:
1. Early neonatal mortality.
2. Perinatal mortality.
3. Post neonatal mortality.
4. Late neonatal mortality.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page 415
73. A cardiologist found a highly significant correlation coefficient (r=0.90, p=0.01) between the systolic blood pressure values and serum cholesterol values of the patients attending his clinic. Which of the following statements is a wrong interpretation of the correlation coefficient observed?
1. Since there is a high correlation, the magnitudes of both the measurements are likely to be close to each other.
2. A patient with a high level of systolic BP is also likely to have a high level of serum cholesterol.
3. A patient with a low level of systolic BP is also likely to have a low level of serum cholesterol.
4. About 80% of the variation in systolic blood pressure among his patients can be explained by their serum cholesterol values and vice a versa.
74. All of the following drugs are effective in the treatment of pityriasis versicolor except:
1. Selenium sulphide.
2. Ketoconazole.
3. Griseofulvin.
4. Clotrimazole.
75. A 36-year-old factory worker developed itchy, annular scaly plaques in both groins. Application of a corticosteroid ointment led to temporary relief but the plaques continued to extend at the periphery. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Erythema annulare centrifugum.
2. Granuloma annulare.
3. Annular lichen planus.
4. Tinea cruris.
76. A 16-year-old boy presented with asymptomatic, multiple, erythematous, annular lesions with a callarette of scales at the periphery of the lesions present on the trunk. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Pityriasis versicolor.
2. Pityriasis alba.
3. Pityriasis rosea.
4. Pityriasis rubra pilaris.
77. The only definite indication for giving systemic corticosteroids in pustular psoriasis is:
1. Psoriatic enythroderma with pregnancy.
2. Psoriasis in a patient with alcoholic cirrhosis.
3. Moderate arthritis.
4. Extensive lesions.
78. A 40-year-old woman presents with a 2 year history of erythematous papulopustular lesions on the convexities of the face. There is a background of erythema and telangiectasia. The most likely diagnosis in the patient is:
1. Acne vulgaris.
2. Rosacea.
3. Systemic lupus Erythematosus.
4. Polymorphic light eruption.
79. An 8-year-old boy from Bihar presents with a 6 months history of an illdefined, hypopigmented slightly atrophic macule on the face. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Pityriasis alba.
2. Indeterminate leprosy.
3. Morphoca.
4. Calcium deficiency.
80. A 27-year-old sexually active male develops a vesiculobullous lesion on the glans soon after taking tablet paracetamol for fever. The lesion healed with hyperpigmentation. The most likely diagnosis is:
1. Behcet’s syndrome.
2. Herpes genitalis.
3. Fixed drug eruption
4. Pemphigus vulgaris.
81. In a firearm injury, there is burning, blackening, toattooing around the wound, along with cherry red colour of the surrounding tissues and is cruciate in shape, the injury is:
1. Close shot entry.
2. Close contact exit.
3. Contact shot entry.
4. Distant shot entry.
Refer Apurva Nandy 1st Ed, Page 249. Remember that there will be no Tattooing AROUND the wound in Contact Shot or Exit Shot
82. In methyl alcohol poisoning there is CNS depression cardiac depression and optic nerve atrophy. These effects are produced due to:
1. Formaldehyde and formic acid.
2. Acetaldehyde.
3. Pyridine.
4. Acetie acid.
Refer KD Tripathi 5th Edition Page 354
83. In chronic arsenic poisoning the following samples can be sent for laboratory examination except:
1. Nail clippings.
2. Hair samples.
3. Bone biopsy.
4. Blood sample.
Refer Apurva Nandy 1st Ed, Page 497
84. Which of the following statements is not correct regarding diatom?
1. Diatoms are aquatic unicellular plant.
2. Diatoms has an extracellular coat composed of magnesium.
3. Acid diagestion technique is used to extract diatoms.
4. Presence of diatoms in the femoral bone marrow is an indication of antemartem inhalation of water.
Refer Reddy 17th Edition Page 294 (Diatoms have chlorophyll)
85. In India, magistrate inquest is done in the following cases except:
1. Exhumation cases.
2. Dowry deaths within 5 years of marriage.
3. Murder cases.
4. Death of a person in police custody.
Refer Reddy 17th Edition Page 6
86. At autopsy, the cyanide poisoning case will show the following features, except:
1. Characteristic bitter lemon smell.
2. Congested organs.
3. The skin may be pinkish or cherry red in colour.
4. Erosion and haemorrhages in oesophagus and stomach.
Refer Reddy 17th Edition Page 492 (read this page before arguing about the answer)
87. The most reliable criteria in Gustafson’s method of identification is:
1. Cementum apposition.
2. Transparency of root.
3. Attrition.
4. Root resorption.
Refer Apurva Nandy 1st Ed, Page 63
88. The minimum age at which an individual is responsible for his criminal act is:
1. 7 years.
2. 12 years.
3. 16 years.
4. 21 years.
Refer Narayana Reddy 17th Ed, Page 63
89. The most reliable method of identification of an individual is:
1. Dactylography.
2. Scars.
3. Anthropometry.
4. Handwriting.
Refer Reddy 17th Edition Page 66
90. The most common pattern of fingerprint is:
1. Arch.
2. Loop.
3. Whorl.
4. Composite.
Refer Narayana Reddy 17th Ed, Page 67
91. A 30-year-old male patient presents with complaints of weakness in right upper and both lower limbs for last 4 months. He developed digital infarcts involving 2nd and 3rd fingers on right side and 5th finger on left lside. On examination, BP was 160/140 mm Hg, all peripheral pulses were palpable and there was asymmetrical neuropathy. Investigations showed a Hb-12 gm, TLC – 12000 Cu mm, Platelets 4,30,000, ESR – 49 mm. Urine examination showed proteinuria and RBC – 10-15/ hpf with no casts. Which of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Polyarteritis nodosa.
2. Systemic lupus Erythematosus.
3. Wegener’s granulomatosis.
4. Mixed cryoglobulemia.
92. Which of the following infestation leads to malabsorption?
1. Giardia lamblia.
2. Ascaris lumbricoides.
3. Necater Americana.
4. Ancylostoma duodenale.
93. All of the following can cause osteoporosis except:
1. Hyperparathyroidism.
2. Steroid use.
3. Fluorosis.
4. Thyrotoxicosis.
94. Serum angiotensin converting enzyme may be raised in all of the following except:
1. Sarcoidosis.
2. Silicosis.
3. Berylliosis.
4. Bronchogenic carcinoma.
95. Hypercalcemia associated with malignancy is most often mediated by:
1. Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
2. Parthyroid hormone related protein (PTHrP)
3. Interleukin – 6 (IL-6)
4. Calcitonin.
96. All of the following are the causes of relative polycythemia except:
1. Dehydration.
2. Dengue haemorrhagic fever.
3. Gaisbock syndrome.
4. High altitude.
97. All of the following may cause ST segment elevation on EKG, except:
1. Early repolarization variant
2. Constrictive pericarditis.
3. Ventricular aneurysm.
4. Prinzmetal angina.
98. 5’ – Nucleotidase activity is increased in:
1. Bone diseases.
2. Prostate cancer.
3. Chronic renal failure.
4. Cholestatic disorders.
99. Normal CSF glucose level in a normoglycemic adult is:
1. 20-40 mg/dl
2. 40-70 mg/dl
3. 70-90 mg/dl
4. 90-110 mg/dl.
100. Bart’s hydrops fetalis is lethal because:
1. Hb Bart’s cannot bind oxygen.
2. The excess a-globin form insoluble precipitates.
3. Hb Bart’s cannot release oxygen to fetal tissues.
4. Microcytic red cells become trapped in the placenta.
101. Cluster headache is characterized by all except:
1. Affects predominantly females.
2. Unilateral headache.
3. Onset typically in 20-50 years of life.
4. Associated with conjunctival congestion.
102. The most sensitive test for the diagnosis of myasthenia gravis is:
1. Elevated serum A Ch-receptor binding antibodies.
2. Repetitive nerve stimulation test.
3. Positive edrophonium test.
4. Measurement of jitter by single fibre electromyography.
103. Vitamin B12 deficiency can give rise to all of the following, except:
1. Myelopathy.
2. Optic atrophy.
3. Peripheral neuropathy.
4. Myopathy.
104. EEG is usually abnormal in all of the following except:
1. Subacute sclerosing panencephalitis.
2. Locked – in state.
3. Creutzfoldt – Jackob disease.
4. Hepatic encephalopathy.
105. All of the following are neurologic channelopathies except:
1. Hypokalemic periodic paralysis.
2. Episodic ataxia type 1.
3. Familial hemiplegic migraine.
4. Spinocerebellar ataxia 1.
106. According to the Glasgow Coma Scale (GCS) a verbal score of 1 indicates:
1. No response.
2. Inappropriate words.
3. Incomprehensible sounds.
4. Disoriented response.
107. Which of the following is not a neuroparasite?
1. Taenia solium.
2. Acant amoeba.
3. Naegleria.
4. Trichinella spiralis.
108. A 50-year-old man, an alcoholic and a smoker presents with a 3 hour history of severe retrosternal chest pain and increasing shortness of breath. He started having this pain while eating, which was constant and radiated to the back and interscapular region. He was a known hypertensive. On examination, he was cold and clammy with a heart rate of 130/min, and a BP of 80/40 mm Hg. JVP was normal. All peripheral pulses were present and equal. Breath sounds were decreased at the left lung base and chest x-ray showed left pleural effusion.
Which one of the following is the most likely diagnosis?
1. Acute aortic dissection.
2. Acute myocardial infarction.
3. Rupture of the esophagus.
4. Acute pulmonary embolism.
109. Which of the following is a cause of reversible dementia?
1. Subacute combined degeneration.
2. Picks disease.
3. Creutzfeld-Jakob disease.
4. Alzheimer’s disease.
110. Which one of the following drugs is ‘Topoisomerase 1 inhibitor’?
1. Doxorubicin.
2. Irinotecan.
3. Etoposide.
4. Vincristine.
111. Study the following carefully:
Read the pedigree. Inheritance pattern of the disease in the family is:
1. Autosomal recessive type.
2. Autosomal dominant type.
3. X Linked dominant type.
4. X Linked recessive type.
112. Palpable purpura could occur in the following conditions, except:
1. Thrombocytopenia.
2. Small-vessel vasculitis.
3. Disseminated gonococcal infection.
4. Acute meningococcemia.
113. A 59-year-old man with severe myxomatous mitral regurgitation is asymptomatic, with a left ventricular ejection fraction of 45% and an end-systolic diameter index of 2.9 cm/m2. The most appropriate treatment is:
1. Mitral valve repair of replacement.
2. No treatment.
3. ACE inhibitor therapy.
4. Digoxin and diuretic therapy.
114. The gold standard for the diagnosis of osteoporosis is:
1. Dual energy X-ray absorptimetry.
2. Single energy X-ray absorptiometry.
3. Ultrasound.
4. Quantiative computed tomography.
115. Nevirapine is a:
1. Protease inhibitor.
2. Nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
3. Non-nucleoside reverse transcriptase inhibitor.
4. Fusion inhibitor.
116. With reference to infections with Escherichia coli the following are true except:
1. Enteroaggregative E. coli is associated with pwesistent diarrhoea.
2. Enterohemorrhagic E.coli can cause haemolytic uraemic syndrome.
3. Enteroinvasive E. coli produces a disease similar to salmonellosis.
4. Enterotoxigenic E.coli is a common cause of travelers diarrhoea.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 279
117. The following statements are true regarding melioidosis except:
1. It is caused by Burkholderia mallei.
2. The agent is a grain negative aerobic bacteria.
3. Bipolar staining of the aetiological agent is seen with methylene blue stain.
4. The most common form of melioidosis is pulmonary infection.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 322
118. The following bacteria are most often associated with acute neonatal meningitis except:
1. Escherichia coli.
2. Streptococcus agalactiae.
3. Neisseria meningitidis.
4. Listeria monocytogenes.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 204 and Nelson 16th Ed, Pages 540, 751
119. All of the following Vibrio sp. Are halophilic, except:
1. V. cholerae.
2. V. parahaemolyticus.
3. V. alginolyticus.
4. V. fluvialis.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 316
120. All of the following organisms are known to survive intracellularly except:
1. Neisseria meningitides.
2. Salmonella typhi.
3. Streptococcus pyogenes.
4. Legionella pneumophila.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Pages 224, 295, 409
121. The capsule of Cryptococus neoformans in a CSF sample is best seen by:
1. Grams stain.
2. India ink preparation.
3. Giemsa stain.
4. Methanamine – Silver stain.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 621
122. In Von Hippel-Lindau Syndrome, the retinal vascular tumours are often associated with intracranial hemangioblastoma. Which one of the following regions is associated with such vascular abnormalities in this syndrome?
1. Optic radiation.
2. Optic tract.
3. Cerebellum.
4. Pulvinar.
123. Viruses can be isolated from clinical samples by cultivation in the following except:
1. Tissue culture.
2. Embryonated eggs.
3. Animals.
4. Chemicaly defined media.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 438
124. It is true regarding the normal microbial flora present on the skin and mucous membranses that:
1. It cannot be eradicated by antimicrobial agents.
2. It is absent in the stomach due to the acidic pH.
3. It establishes in the body only after the neonatal period.
4. The flora in the small bronchi is similar to that of the trachea.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Pages 599 – 601
125. An army jawan posted in a remote forest area had fever and headache. His fever was 104°F and pulse was 70 per mibn. He had an erythematous lesion of about 1 cm on the leg surrounded by small vesicles, along with generalized lymphadenopathy at the time of presentation to the referral hospital. His blood sample was collected to perform serology for the diagnosis of Rickettsial disease. Which one of the following results in Weil-felix reaction will be diagnostic in this clinical setting:
1. High OX-2.
2. High OX-19.
3. High OX-K.
4. High OX-19 and OX-2.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 418
126. Adenosine deaminase (enzyme) deficiency is associated with:
1. Severe combined immunodeficiency (SCID)
2. X-linked agammaglobulinemia.
3. Transient hypogammaglobulinemia of infancy.
4. Chronic granulomatous disease.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 156
127. Which of the following viral infections is transmitted by tick?
1. Japanese encephalitis.
2. Dengue fever.
3. Kyasanur forest disease (KFD).
4. Yellow fever.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 531
128. Atypical pneumonia can be caused by the following microbial agents except:
1. Mycoplasma pneumoniae.
2. Legionella pemmophila.
3. Human Corona virus.
4. Klebsiella pneumoniae.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 397 and Harrison 15th Edition Chapter 255
129. The serum concentration of which of the following human IgG subclass is maximum?
1. IgG1.
2. IgG2.
3. IgG3.
4. IgG4.
Refer Chaterjee 6th Edition Page 100
130. Chlamydia trachomatis is associated with the following except:
1. Endemic trachoma.
2. Inclusion conjunctivitis.
3. Lymphogranuloma venereum.
4. Community acquired pneumonia.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 424
131. The following statements are true regarding Clostridium perfringens except:
1. It is commonest cause of gas gangrene.
2. It is normally present in human faeces.
3. The principal toxin of C.perfringens is the alpha toxin.
4. Gas gangrene producing strains of C.perfringens produce heat resistant spores.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 249
132. The most common organism amongst the following that causes acute meningitis in an AIDS patients is:
1. Streptococcus pneumoniae.
2. Streptococcus agalactiae.
3. Cryptococcus neoformans.
4. Listeria monocytogenes.
Refer Harrison 15th Edition Page 309
133. A bacterial disease that has been associated with the 3 “Rs” i.e., rats, ricefields, and rainfall is:
1. Leptospirosis.
2. Plague.
3. Melioidosis.
4. Rodent-bite fever.
Refer Park 18th Edition Page and Anathanarayanan 7th Ed, page 332 (I prefer Melioidosis)
Till there is a solid reference, Please consider this question as “wrong” while calculating your “net”
134. A child was diagnosed to be suffering from diarrhoea due to Compylobacter jejuni. Which of the following will be the correct environmental conditions of incubation of the culture plates of the stool sample:
1. Temperature of 42°C and microaerophilic.
2. Temperature of 42°C and 10% carbon dioxide.
3. Temperature of 37°C and microaerophilic.
4. Temperature of 37°C and 10% carbon dioxide.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 406. I prefer Choice 2
135. Which one of the following statements is true regarding Chlamydia pneumoniae:
1. Fifteen serovars have been identified as human pathogens.
2. Mode of transmission is by the airborne bird excreta.
3. The cytoplasmic inclusions present in the sputum specimen are rich in glycogen.
4. The group specific antigen is responsible for the production of complement fixing antibodies.
Refer Ananthanarayanan 7th Edition Page 424. I prefer Choice 3
136. Which of the following ultrasound marker is associated with greatest increased risk for Trisomy 21 in fetus:
1. Echogenic foci in heart.
2. Hyperechogenic bowel.
3. Choroid plexus cysts.
4. Nuchal edema.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 687
Nuchal Edema 38 % Risk, Hyperechogenic bowel 11 % risk and Choroid plexus cyst 0 % risk according to Williams
137. The highest incidence of Gestational Trophoblastic Disease is in:
1. Australia.
2. Asia.
3. North America.
4. Western Europe.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 206
138. The smallest diameter of the true pelvis is:
1. Interspinous diameter.
2. Diagonal conjugate.
3. True conjugate.
4. Intertuberous diameter.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 96
139. The most common pure germ cell tumor of the ovary is:
1. Choriocarcinoma.
2. Dysgerminoma.
3. Embryonal cell tumor.
4. Malignant Teratoma.
Refer Dutta Gynaec 2nd Edition Page 345
140. Infants of diabetic mother are likely to have the following cardiac anomaly:
1. Coarctation of aorta.
2. Fallot’s tetrology.
3. Ebstein’s anomaly.
4. Transposition of great arteries.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 296 and Williams 21st Edition Page 1188
141. Which one of the following is the ideal contraceptive for a patient with heart disease:
1. IUCD.
2. Depoprovera.
3. Diaphragm.
4. Oral contraceptive pills.
Refer Williams 20th Edition Page 1211
142. The karyotype of a patient with Androgen Insensitivity Syndrome is:
1. 46xx.
2. 46xy.
3. 47xxy.
4. 45xo.
Refer Dutta Gynaec 2nd Edition Page 396
143. The following drug is not helpful in the treatment of ectopic Pregnancy:
1. Methothrexate.
2. Misoprostol.
3. Actinomycin-D.
4. RU 486
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 202 and Williams 20th Edition Page 624
144. The best period of gestation to carry out chorion villous biopsy for prenatal diagnosis is?
1. 8 -10 weeks.
2. 10 -12 weeks
3. 12 – 14 weeks.
4. 14 – 16 weeks.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 113
145. Which one of the follwing biochemical parameters is the most sensitive to detect open spina bifida?
1. Maternal serum alpha fetoprotein.
2. Amniotic fluid alpha fetoprotein.
3. Amniotic fluid acetyl cholinesterase.
4. Amniotic fluid glucohexaminase.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 112 and also Williams clearly gives that MSAFP is used for Screening even though AF AChe is more specific
146. Risk of preterm delivery is increased if cervical length is:
1. 2.5 cm.
2. 3.0 cm.
3. 3.5 cm.
4. 4.0 cm.
Refer Williams 21st Edition Page 701
147. Diagnosis of beta Thalassemia is established by:
1. NESTROFT Test.
2. Hb A1 C estimation.
3. Hb electrophoresis.
4. Target cells in peripheral smear.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 292 and Nelson 16th Ed, Page 1484
148. All are the risk factors associated with macrosomia except:
1. Maternal obesity.
2. Prolonged Pregnancy.
3. Previous large infant.
4. Short Stature.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 340 and Nelson 15th Edition Table 80.2
149. Which of the following statements is incorrect in relation to pregnant women with epilepsy?
1. The rate of congenital malformation is increased in the offspring of women with epilepsy.
2. Seizure frequency increases in approximately 70% of women.
3. Breast feeding is safe with most anticonvulsants.
4. Folic acid supplementation may reduce the risk of neural tube defect.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 316 and Harrison 15th Edition Chapter 360
150. All are the causes of intrauterine growth retardation except:
1. Anemia.
2. Pregnancy induced hypertension.
3. Maternal heart disease.
4. Gestational diabetes.
Refer Dutta Obstetrics 4th Edition Page 497 and Nelson 15th Edition Table 82.4